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JOHN CHAPTER 3
(v. 23) Now while he was in Jerusalem at the Passover Feast, many people saw the miraculous signs He was doing and believed in His name."
OBSERVATIONS
We can observe from v. 23 that our Lord 'was in Jerusalem at the Passover Feast.' Also that the 'Many people [who] saw the miraculous signs He was doing', numbering in the thousands according to the more than a million who annually attended this feast from all over the world, testify that Jesus indeed did work miracles.
And as a result of this testimonial, many 'believed in His name.'
Author John previously defined the phrase 'believed in His name,' in 1:12-13 as that which results in becoming a child of God as a result of being born of God, signifying an eternal relationship with Him in the kingdom.
(v. 12) "Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God--
(v. 13) children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God."
(v. 24) "But Jesus would not entrust himself to them, for he knew all men.
(v. 25) He did not need man's testimony about man, for he knew what was in man."
OBSERVATIONS:
"But Jesus would not entrust himself to them, for He knew all men. He did not need man's testimony about man, for He knew what was in man." =
Although many believed in His name unto eternal life as vv. 1:12-13 has already established, Jesus would not entrust Himself to them with respect to their testimony about man relative to His ministry; for He knew what was in man, i.e., He knew of their intrinsic untrustworthiness. Even those who believed in His name unto salvation were untrustworthy relative to their testimony about man.
It is evident that even the testimony of those who believed in His name unto salvation would not be trustworthy because of what was in them. We can conclude from this that man has within him even as a believer an inherently untrustworthy nature.
Contrary to the opinion of some, the phrase "But Jesus would not entrust Himself to them" cannot signify that the many who "saw the miraculous signs He was doing and believed in His name" were not truly saved for this is simply not addressed in this passage. Only the testimony of man is what is in view as not being entrusted to by our Lord. Furthermore, an earlier passage, (Jn 1:12-13), indicates that one is born of God when one believes in His name without any qualification of the verb 'believes' to differentiate the false idea of saving faith in Christ vs. non-saving faith in Christ. Consider that, just as Jesus did not entrust Himself to the disciples throughout His ministry before the cross, so much the more did He not entrust Himself to the many who believed in His name relative to their "testimony about man." Sad to say even today, the testimony of most Christians "about man" cannot be trusted. Nevertheless, all who believe in His name become children of God unto eternal life forever, (Jn 1:12-13).
If a committed lifestyle of faithfulness to Jesus is a requirement in order to be saved, and since Jn 2:25 stipulates "For He [Jesus] knew what was in man" implies that no man is capable of such faithfulness, then no one can be saved and this passage deteriorates into nonsense.
A) LACK OF COMMITTMENT FAITH OR INEFFECTIVE MIRACLE FAITH IS NOT IN VIEW
[Dr. Robert Wilkin states, Grace Evangelical Society, http://www.faithalone.org/news/y1990/90june2.html]:
'''John 2:23-24 does use the words "faith" and "commitment" back to back. In fact, as you mention, in Greek only one word is used to convey both ideas. The word pisteuo, normally translated "believe," can legitimately sometimes be translated "commit." However, it does not mean commit in the sense of pledging to serve God. Pisteuo is used in verse 24 in the sense of entrusting something to someone. Jesus did not entrust Himself and His mission to new believers. He knew that they were not worthy of such trust at that point in His ministry.
If commitment in the sense of pledging to serve God is synonymous with faith in Christ, we would need to find passages conditioning eternal life upon pledging one's lives to serve God. We find none. In fact, in the Gospel of John, the only book in the Bible whose primary purpose is evangelistic, the word "commit" only occurs twice and neither time in reference to man (John 2:24 refers to Christ and John 5:22 refers to the Father). This is a telling fact. In addition, the word "repent" doesn't occur at all. However, the word "believe in its various forms (noun and verb) occurs 99 times in John's Gospel.'''
The evidence is overwhelming. Belief is not synonymous with commitment in the sense of pledging to do something. (It is, of course, in the sense of entrusting one's eternal destiny in God's hands through His Son.)
[Dr. David R Anderson, Pastor, Faith Community Church, The Woodlands, Texas, adjunct professor at Dallas Theological Seminary in Houston Texas, 'The Nature of Faith', danderson@faithcc.org]:
"God gave the signs to persuade people regarding Jesus (cf Hebrews 2:3-4). Those who advocate Lordship Salvation cannot have their cake and eat it too. They cannot say one on the one hand, that God gave the signs to help people believe in Jesus, while branding the faith resulting from these God-given signs as inadequate. Rather than disparaging faith inspired by seeing His works, Jesus holds those responsible who have seen His works and have not believed:
(v. 37) "If I do not do the works of My Father, do not believe Me;
(v. 38) but if I do, though you do not believe Me, believe the works, that you may know and believe that the Father is in Me and I in Him."
"Now there was a man of the Pharisees named Nicodemus, a member of the Jewish ruling council."
OBSERVATIONS
Verses 3:1-2 begin with the word 'now' [Gk = "de"] and by this word we can infer that the passage continues the context of the previous verses, 2:23-25.
Verse 3:1 points to a specific 'man of the Pharisees' named Nicodemus, who is further described as 'a member of the Jewish Ruling Council.' We might infer from this that the Pharisees are an influential and powerful group of which Nicodemus is a member. This is further confirmed since the phrase 'man of the Pharisees' is paralleled in this verse and hence on a par with 'a member of the Jewish Ruling Council.'
The word 'Pharisee' means
'separated one' in the sense of being isolated and segregated. During the
Maccabean period in the reign of John Hyrcanus, (134 - 104 B.C.), the two
great conflicting parties in Judaism came into existence - the Pharisees
and the Sadducees. The Pharisees evolved from a pious group of people
called the Hasidim - who stood true to the Law under the persecution of
Antiochus Epiphanes in 168 B.C. But the Pharisees in Jesus' time
degenerated into becoming legalistic, arrogant and unprincipled
separatists, believing that their lifestyle was superior to the rest of
the world and favored by God. They prided themselves on their intellectual
capacity and 'superior' knowledge of the Scriptures. Such knowledge,
however, was superficial and unbiblical, not being connected to the
context and true meaning of God's Word. Nevertheless they used their
sanctimonious lifestyle and presentation of false doctrine to maintain
their position of political rulership, often at others' expense, (cp Mt
23:13-36 and Lk 11:39-52
).
So here is a Pharisee named Nicodemus, who had such great political
position and authority that he was a teacher of teachers of Scripture to
the nation Israel, (v. 3:10), and a member of the Jewish Ruling Council,
(v. 3:1). He was viewed by others as a prime example of doing good. People
thought of him as 'knowing' (Old Testament) Scripture and obeying it so
well that few doubted that he was destined to see the kingdom of
heaven.Compare Lk 18:26. Note the surprise of the disciples at our Lord's
pronouncement of condemnation on the rich young ruler; a man who
arrogantly proclaimed to have kept the commandments. Because of a supposed
'faithful' lifestyle people believed the young ruler was blessed by God
with wealth. This was a man who had a similar background to many of the
Pharisees like Nicodemus.
(v. 1) "Now there was a man of the Pharisees named Nicodemus, a member of the Jewish ruling council."
(v. 2) "He came to Jesus at night and said, 'Rabbi, we know you are a teacher Who has come from God. For no one could perform the miraculous signs you are doing if God were not with Him."
OBSERVATIONS
So Nicodemus, a Pharisee and a member of the Jewish Ruling Council - a powerful man of state, comes to visit Jesus at night time. The time of his visit suggests that Nicodemus did not want to be observed by others, putting his high position at risk.
The first thing Nicodemus is reported as saying to Jesus begins with the word, 'Rabbi, which means teacher. Evidently, Nicodemus recognized that Jesus was knowledgeable in the [OT] Scriptures sufficiently to be called 'Rabbi' by a man who himself, as a Pharisee and Council Ruler, was a Teacher of teachers of Scriptures to the whole nation Israel, (v. 3:10). Nicodemus continues his statement/question after the word 'Rabbi' with 'we know you are a teacher Who has come from God. For no one could perform the miraculous signs you are doing if God were not with Him.'
"We know you are a teacher Who has come from God=
"We know" = "Oidamen" = Although Nicodemus has come alone, he is evidently speaking for and representing others as well as himself who respect our Lord as "Rabbi" and who view Him as One Who has "come from God."
Not only does Nicodemus recognize Jesus as a master teacher of the Scriptures, but he considers that He 'has come from God.'
Nicodemus supports his observation that our Lord 'has come from God' with his next statement, 'For no one could perform the miraculous signs you are doing if God were not with Him.' Evidently Nicodemus has in view what many observed as miraculous things that Jesus was doing, (2:23). It is likely he had observed Jesus performing miracles himself.
"We know you are a Teacher Who has come from God, for no one could perform the [miraculous] signs you are doing if God were not with Him" =
"perform" = "poieis, " = "are doing, pres. sing. = are doing" = indicates that our Lord was doing [miraculous] signs over an extended period of time = "semeia".
The signs = "semeia" in this context are miraculous. The non-miraculous type of signs would not be significant enough to identify our Lord as a Man from God.
So the Greek word "semeia" refers to miraculous signs which point to the individual and event as coming from God, especially in the Gospel of John which uses the word exclusively for that purpose:
Nicodemus' question is an inquiry as to Who Jesus is and it includes a personal viewpoint that connects Jesus with God:
"we know you are a teacher Who has come from God" =
The Greek actually positions 'from God' at the beginning of the phrase:
" rabbi {RABBI,} oidamen {WE KNOW} oti {THAT} apo {FROM} qeou {GOD} elhluqaV {THOU HAST COME}
"from God" = "apo Theou" = Nicodemus indicated emphatically due to the position of "from God" in the beginning phrase of verse 2 that the One performing such signs comes from God.
A) NICODEMUS' VIEW OF OUR LORD
Nicodemus knew there was something awesome and supernatural about this Man. So in spite of the negative reaction of fellow rulers to Jesus, Nicodemus risked visiting with Him at night to find out Who He really was. You will note that Nicodemus visited Jesus on more than one occasion at night time, suggesting that he was hesitant to broadcast his interest in our Lord to others, (ref. 3:2; 7:50; 19:39). Nicodemus, a teacher of teachers of Scripture, respectfully calls Jesus, 'Rabbi' which means Teacher and acknowledges the reality of the many, many miracles Jesus was working. 'Surely this Man Jesus has come from God', Nicodemus thought. But our Lord does not immediately respond to Nicodemus' desire to know Who Jesus is]:
"In reply, Jesus declared, 'I tell you the truth; no man can see the kingdom of God unless he is born again."
OBSERVATIONS
Jesus does not directly tell Nicodemus Who He is. Instead, He tells him how to enter the eternal kingdom of God: 'You must be born again, ["gennethe anothen" = lit. born from above, from heaven - through God] in order to see the kingdom of God.
'If you are not born again - from above, you will not see the "kingdom of God".'
Evidently our Lord connects an understanding of Who He is with an understanding of what a man [enter] the eternal kingdom of God'. Contrary to objectmust do to 'seeors, the phrase 'to see the kingdom of God' here implies actually entering the eternal Kingdom of God rather than being limited to simply perceiving what the Kingdom of God is like in ones mortal life. Certainly becoming born again (from above) provides more than just a temporal perception of God's eternal kingdom. Verses 5 & 6 which follow will corroborate this. For that is how He addressed Nicodemus' statement/question "We know you are a Teacher Who has come from God". Our Lord's answer does not appear to directly address Nicodemus, but consider this:
If Nicodemus had been one of the many in v. 2:23 who 'saw the miraculous signs He was doing and believed in His name'; that is to say, understood Who He was and believed in His capacity to save him from his sins and 'see the kingdom of God'; then Nicodemus would have understood right then and there Who Jesus was. He would not have needed to come to Jesus later on that night and ask his question. To know Who Jesus is to believe on His name and become born again into the family of God. Author John of this Gospel covered this doctrine earlier in chapter one:
1) [Compare Jn 1:12-13]:
(v. 12) "Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God--
(v. 13) children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God."
2) [Compare 1 John 5:1]:
"Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves the father loves His child as well."
[Notice that if you believe Who Jesus is, i.e., that He is the Christ, the Messiah Who 'by His knowledge... will justify many and He will bear their iniquities' as the OT Scripture promised, (ref Isa 53:1-12), then you are born of God and will see [enter] the eternal kingdom of God]
Jesus does not immediately tell Nicodemus Who He is. Instead, He tells him how to go to heaven: "You must be born again.'
'If you are not born again, you will never see the "kingdom of God".'
We know this because both OT and NT Scriptures indicate that there will be only two places that an individual will finally and forever occupy: either the kingdom of God, experiencing God's blessing or the place of eternal punishment experiencing God's wrath and condemnation.
(v. 1) "Why do you boast of evil, you might man? Why do you boast all day long, you who are a disgrace in the eyes of God?
(v. 2) Your tongue plots destruction; it is like a sharpened razor, you who practice deceit.
(v. 3) You love evil rather than good, falsehood rather than speaking the truth.
(v. 4) You love every harmful word, O you deceitful tongue!
(v. 5) Surely God will bring you down to everlasting ruin He will snatch you up and tear you from you tent; He will uproot you from the land of the living.
(v. 6) The righteous will see and fear; they will laugh at him, saying,
(v. 7) 'Here now is the man who did not make God his stronghold but trusted in his great wealth and grew strong by destroying others!'
(v. 8) But I am like an olive tree flourishing in the house of God; I trust in God's unfailing love for ever and ever.
(v. 9) I will praise you forever for what you have done' in your name I will hope, for your name is good. I will praise you in the presence of your saints.'
"[Jesus says] 'Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life.' "
(v. 5) "All this is evidence that God's judgment is right, and as a result you will be counted worthy of the kingdom of God, for which you are suffering.
(v. 6) God is just: He will pay back trouble to those who trouble you
(v. 7) and give relief to you who are troubled, and to us as well. This will happen when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven in blazing fire with His powerful angels.
(v. 8) He will punish those
who do not know God and do not obey [believe in, (1
Pet 1:17-23 )]
the gospel of our Lord Jesus.'
(v. 9) They will be punished with everlasting destruction and shut out from the presence of the Lord and from the majesty of His power
(v. 10) on the day He comes to be glorified in His hoy people and to be marveled at among all those who have believed. This includes you, because you believed our testimony to you.' "
Although God rules everywhere, the phrase, "no one can see the kingdom of God" means that one will be forever separated from God, and thereby under His judgment and wrath - (hell) - an awesome statement to begin His answer to Nicodemus' question of Who Jesus is. Nicodemus was a man familiar with Scripture so he should have comprehended what Jesus was saying. Nicodemus was a man who was confident of his qualifications for entering heaven until he heard what Jesus had to say! But now, Nicodmus began to have a problem with what our Lord was saying:
" 'How can a man be born when he is old?', Nicodemus asked. 'Surely he cannot enter a second time into his mother's womb to be born!' "
OBSERVATIONS
A) NICODEMUS DOES NOT UNDERSTAND THE CONCEPT OF BEING BORN AGAIN
" 'How can a man be born when he is old?', Nicodemus asked. 'Surely he cannot enter a second time into his mother's womb to be born!' " =
By his response, 'Are you suggesting that a grown man can re-enter his mother's womb?', we can observe that Nicodemus did not accept or understand what Jesus was saying. He was evidently disturbed by our Lord's statement about not seeing, i.e., not entering the kingdom of God unless one is born again. He did not yet understand Who Jesus was, nor the concept of being born again, ("gennEthE anOthen" = literally, 'born from above'). This has a direct implications on his eternal destiny. In reply to Nicodemus, our Lord provides more instruction to Nicodemus so that he might understand:
(v. 5) "Jesus answered, 'I tell you the truth, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water and spirit."
OBSERVATIONS:
Jesus answers again that no one can enter, i.e., see, the kingdom of God unless he is 'born of water and spirit' or 'spiritual', ('pneumatos' can mean either). And He further explains this with the next verse 'Flesh gives birth to flesh but the Spirit gives birth to spirit' out of or by water. When we compare verse 6, 'flesh gives birth to flesh but the Spirit gives birth to spirit' with v. 5's 'born of water' out of the spiritual realm; we are left with water being symbolic of God the Holy Spirit Himself as the only Agent in the spiritual realm or any realm Who can perform a spiritual birth.
Recall that verses 1:12-13 stipulate that one who believes on His [Christ's] name is "born of God" which is also indicated in 3:3 as literally being "born from above". This narrows down the One Who performs regeneration to God Himself = God the Holy Spirit. This operation is outside of the physical realm as stipulated. Hence born of "water" = born of God the Holy Spirit.
So what does He mean?
According to v. 6, it is evidently a spiritual birth our Lord is speaking about which is brought about by God the Holy Spirit = an actual birth in the spiritual realm by the Holy Spirit - excluding anything to do with the flesh, i.e., excluding the physical realm and thus excluding any human doing like water baptism.
Hence 'born of water' in v. 5 cannot mean physical water. It must be something symoblic of the spiritual world.
Let us look at the Greek text in v. 5. We have 'gennEthE ex hudatos kai pneumatos' = 'born out of water and [born out of] spirit or [the] spiritual. One clue as to what the word 'water' means in v. 5 comes from a careful examination of the phrase 'kai pneumatos' = 'and [the] spiritual' which is directed by the verb and preposition 'gennEthE ex' = 'born out of'. The phrase 'kai pneumatos' indicates that one is born out of 'pneumatos' = 'the spiritual', i.e., the spiritual realm out of or by water. Thus when we view verse 6's statement that 'flesh gives birth to flesh but the Spirit gives birth to spirit' and the statement in v. 5 that we are born again out of the spiritual realm by 'water'; we are left with water being symbolic of God the Holy Spirit Himself.
A) BORN OF WATER AND SPIRIT = A SPIRITUAL BIRTH VIA THE EXCLUSIVE WORK OF GOD THE HOLY SPIRIT
The original text for the first phrase as the apostle John wrote it and under the inspiration of God the Holy Spirit, (2 Tim 3:16), looks like this transliterated into English:
" ean-me tis ........gennthe ex ......hudatos"
"unless ...anyone be born out of water"
"born out of water" = "gennthe ex hudatos" =
1) [Compare Titus 3:5 from the New Testament perspective]:
[Titus 3:5]:
"ouk ex .......ergon ton ....en dikaiosuen
"not .out of works which in righteousness
on ......epoiesamen emeis alla
which practiced ....we ....but
kata ...............ton autou eleon ...esosen ....emas
according to .His ...........mercy He saved us
dia .........loutrou paliggenesias
through washing again birth (regeneration)
kai ...anakainoseos pneumatos agiou"
and ...renewing ......of Spirit .....Holy"
So, being born again, i.e., salvation unto eternal life is not achieved by practicing good works. Salvation, on the contrary, is an act of mercy by God upon the individual as it says above. Titus 3:5 parallels Jn 3:5 in that it describes being born again as a washing again birth in the realm of the Holy Spirit. This washing again birth, i.e., regeneration is exclusively the renewing process of the Holy Spirit. Furthermore salvation is portrayed here as concurrent with being born again; even two sides of the same coin. So the exclusive connection between washing & water, the Holy Spirit and regeneration is repeatedly made in God's Word.
i) [Compare Ez 36:24-27 from the Old Testament]
This teaching is also substantiated in the Old Testament, especially in the passage which Jesus was referring to in His conversation with Nicodemus: The scripture which Nicodemus was sure to be familiar with relative to the phrase "born of water" is about how God will sprinkle clean water on the Jewish people...cleansing them from all sin...giving them a new heart...putting a new spirit in them...by putting His Spirit in them. (Ez 36:24-27). John 3:5's "born of water and spirit." This indeed is being born again, from above = indicated right there in the Old Testament:
i cont.) [Ez 36:24-27 cont.]:
(v. 24) "For I will take you [Israel] out of the nations; I will gather you from all the countries and bring you back into your own land.
(v. 25) I [God] will sprinkle clean water [the Holy Spirit, (v. 27)] on you and you will be clean; I will cleanse you from all your impurities and from all your idols."
["water" - water here is the symbol for God the Holy Spirit, cp Jn 7:38-39a]:
(v. 38) "Whoever believes in Me [Jesus Christ] as the Scripture has said, streams of living water will flow from within him.
(v. 39a) By this He meant the Spirit..."
[Notice that we have the possibility presented in the New Testament that water could be figurative of the Holy Spirit in the context of being born again.
Compare the O.T. passages our Lord was referring to: Isa 43:20; 44:3; 55:1 & especially 12:2-3]:
[Ref Isa 44:3]:
"For I will pour water on the thirsty land, and streams on the dry ground; I will pour out my Spirit on your offspring, and my blessing on your descendants."
[Ref Isa 55:1]:
"Come, all you who are thirsty, come to the waters; and you who have no money, come, buy and eat! Come, buy wine and milk without money and without cost."
[Notice the reference to waters being symbolic of the Lord]
(v. 2) "Surely God is my salvation; I will trust and not be afraid. The Lord, the Lord, is my strength and my song; He has become my salvation.
(v. 3) With joy you will draw water from the wells of salvation."
i cont.) [Ez 36:24-27 cont.]:
(v. 25) "I [God] will sprinkle clean water [the Holy Spirit] on you and you will be clean; I will cleanse you from all your impurities and from all your idols."
[The clear understanding of the phrase "I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you will be clean: I will cleanse you from all your impurities and from all your idols" has in view something physical water obviously and logically cannot do. Besides that, God is the One doing the sprinkling of clean water on Israel. Why would God be sprinkling actual physical clean water on the nation Israel? This is obviously a figure of speech, not representative of physical water. Verse 26 then continues this context to elaborate what God is going to do to Israel relative to His sprinkling of clean water on Israel, and that is; and only the Holy Spirit can do this]:
(v. 26) I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit in you; [a born again spirit, (Jn 3:5)] I will remove from you your heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh.
["I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit in you" is clearly tied to the sprinkling of clean water in v. 25, which cannot be accomplished by sprinkling of actual physical water. And as verse 26 continues in context, "I will remove from you your heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh." Clearly all of this together is describing an operation that is in the spiritual realm and not the physical. Thus this excludes the sprinkling of physical water. Finally, verse 27 provides the spiritual reality behind using water as a figure of speech for God the Holy Spirit's operating on the nation Israel in the spiritual realm]:
(v. 27) And I will put My Spirit in you and move you to follow My decrees and be careful to keep My laws."
[So the water is tied to an operation by God the Holy Spirit. Any attempt to make water physical flies in the face of the rules of figure of speech when sprinkling of physical water cannot be expected to provide the results stipulated above in verse 27. Clearly this is a description of water as a figure of speech of God the Holy Spirit operating in the spiritual realm in the regeneration of Israel which Nicodemus should have been familiar with and drawn a parallel with what Jesus said in Jn 3:5-6.
So Jesus says in Jn 3:5 that a man must be born spiritually - born again out of the renewing of the Holy Spirit and out of the spiritual realm - otherwise he cannot enter the kingdom of God, of heaven.
Notice that being born again, i.e., regenerated, in Scripture has been shown to be concurrent with being saved unto eternal life, i.e., entering the eternal kingdom of God, (Jn 3:4-5). Other passages stipulate that this occurs when one believes, (Ac 16:30-31; Jn 3:16). So regeneration, i.e., becoming born again unto eternal life occurs when one is saved unto eternal life at the moment of faith alone in Christ alone.
(v. 12) "Yet to all who received [aorist] him, to those who believed [] in his name, he gave the right to become children of God--
(v. 13) children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God."
[Notice that those that insist that regeneration precedes faith find themselves refuted when observing the context of Jn 1:12-13:
Verse 12 declares that one who received Christ, (aorist), was given (aorist) the right to become a child of God, (aorist infinitive) - to the ones who are believers in Christ, (dative, present participle = a noun)! Verse 13 then continues this context stipulating that those in view in v. 12, i.e., children of God, are those that became born of God, (aorist) which viewing back to v. 12 became children of God when they believed. Hence believing came first then one became a child of God, born of God. One can hardly become born of God then believe in order to become a child of God, for being born of God is paralleled here with being a child of God. The image itself would be absurd if one insisted that one is born of God but not yet a child of God!]
"Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves the father loves His child as well."
[Notice that if you believe Who Jesus is, i.e., that He is the Christ, the Messiah Who 'by His knowledge... will justify many and He will bear their iniquities' as the OT Scripture promised for a coming Messiah, ('the Christ', in greek, ref. Isa 53:1-12), then you are born of God and will see [enter] the eternal kingdom of God]
Recall that verses 1:12-13 stipulate that one who believes on His [Christ's] name is "born of God" which is also indicated in 3:3 as literally being "born from above".
c) MAN HAS A SIN PROBLEM WITH GOD WHICH IS RESOLVED BY REGENERATION, I.E., BECOMING BORN AGAIN
Because of the sin of Adam and Eve in the Garden of Eden, (Adam in particular as the federal head and representative of the human race), we are all born in sin and spiritually dead, (cp 1 Cor 15:21-22; Eph 2:1; Ro 5:12):
"Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man [Adam], and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned."
When Adam sinned as the representative of all men, then all men became guilty of sin and are consequently born with a sin nature, (Ro 7:18-24).
So Jesus says that a man must be born spiritually - born again - otherwise he cannot enter the kingdom of God, of heaven.
V) [Jn 3:5 cont.]:
(v. 5) "Jesus answered, 'I tell you the truth, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water and spirit."
Since God is merciful and gracious and just;
and since God is not willing that any should perish,
(1 Pet 3:9);
and since salvation is given freely only to those who trust alone in Christ alone as Savior, (Eph 2:8-9, Ro 3:21-31);
and since the sole condition of eternal condemnation is to refuse to believe in Christ alone for eternal life, (Jn 3:36, 3:18, 1 Jn 5:1);
then those that have neither the capacity to believe nor the capacity to reject Christ as Savior cannot be condemned and must be saved.
Otherwise God could not be declared a just God.
[Robert P. Lightner states, ("SIN, THE SAVIOR, AND SALVATION", Thomas Nelson Pub., Nashville, Tn., 1991)]:
"By those who can't believe we mean not only infants and young children, but also all who experience physical death before they are capable of making a decision either for or against the Savior. Those individuals who are mentally incompetent or incapacited, and have therefore never been able to believe, are also included. Human life begins at conception. Those who can't believe also include babies aborted naturally or by human instigation." (p. 178).
"There is but one human condition the sinner must meet in order to enter into salvation in Christ. Personal faith - individual trust - is presented many, many times in Scripture as the sole condition for salvation." [Eph 2:8-9; Titus 3:5] (p. 180).
"But what about those who can't believe, those who can't consciously receive salvation?....Any attempt to answer the question ...must take into account the fact that these are never called upon by God to believe.
It is always to those capable of believing that the challenge is issued. Would it not be mockery for God to call upon His creatures to do, and to hold them responsible for doing, what they could not do?"
(p. 181).
[A good point to consider. Every salvation verse was always spoken to those who were capable of believing.]
"The Lord is good. (Nah. 1:7)...The Bible does not teach the damnation of those who can't believe.
[In truth it is completely silent on the subject]
It does teach the goodness of God. It is inconsistent with His goodness to believe any who die who can't believe are doomed." (p. 185).
"Not one verse of Scripture which relates in any way to the question at hand can be used to suggest the view that any of those who die without being able to respond to the Savior are doomed to eternity in Hell. What information God has been pleased to give us provides great and gracious promise of eternal salvation for all who can't believe." (p. 191).
Compare David's attitude over his son by Uriah's wife that died (2 Sam. 12-23) and the adult son, Absalom, who died and David was unsure of his salvation
(2 Sam. 18:33).
Then upon getting to the place where they may consciously reject Christ alone as Savior:
Their names are still in the Book of Life but that name is erased upon their death if after consciously having rejected Christ they never accept Him by conscious faith in Him alone. This may fit with the command of Dt. 6:7 to teach the children the faith so that they will never come into a place of having rejected Christ but would go from the position of child-faith to conscious adult faith, having never entered into a lost state. After all, God is not willing for any to perish (2 Peter 3:9) so why would He not make the provision where no one would need to go from being a protected child to a lost adult before becoming a saved adult?
Objectors maintain that "born out of water" is a figure of speech referring to water baptism but this is impossible for a number of reasons:
Since our Lord was speaking to Nicodemus who was a Jew under the Old Testamant Scriptures and the Mosaic Law system then the context must have that in view. Our Lord never mentioned John the Baptist's or His disciples' water baptisms in this conversation. But notice our Lord's rebuke of Nicodemus relative to his understanding of the Old Testament Scriptures, so the answer as to what 'born of water' is in the Old Testament Scriptures not in the current water baptisms by John and the Lord's disciples, (Ref. Ez 36:24-27).
(v. 7) " 'You should not be surprised at my saying, 'You must be born again.' "
(v. 10) " 'You are Israel's teacher,' said Jesus, 'and do you not understand these things?' "
No provision in the Old Testament and under the Law of Moses involving actual water is stipulated as resulting in becoming born again and qualifying one for actually entering the kingdom of God. Ceremonial washings and baptisms with real water under provisions of the Law symbollically represented certain spiritual conditions already attained. So actual water is not in view here in Jn 3:5 which stipulates a requirement of being "born of water and spirit" in order to enter the kingdom of God.
2) NO PROVISION(S) OF THE LAW ENABLED ONE TO BECOME BORN AGAIN
Furthermore, no provision of the Law ever enabled anyone to become "born again". Salvation has always been via a moment of faith alone in Christ alone - before or after Calvary.
(v. 19) "Now we know that whatever the Law says, it says to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be silenced and the whole world held accountable to God.
(v. 20) Therefore no one will be declared righteous in His sight by observing the Law; rather, through the Law we become conscious of sin.
(v. 21) But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify.
(v. 22) This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference,
(v. 23) for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
(v. 24) and are justified freely by His grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus."
John the Baptist's water baptism is another possibility to explain the water in Jn 3:5 until passages when closely observed reveal that it was a symbollic action of a Jew having already accepted Christ as Messiah/Savior bringing in His kingdom and providing him assurance of eternal life. Our Lord was "at hand" to take away the sins of the whole world & usher in His kingdom upon national acceptance of Israel of Him as Messiah/Savior. A Jew who trusted in the coming Messiah in order to receive entrance into the kingdom was then baptized in the river Jordan by John the Baptist and our Lord's disciples as a symbollic representation of what had already occurred: having already trusted in the coming Messiah and become identified with the nation Israel which will enter into the kingdom
4) HOLY SPIRIT BAPTISM IS THE ONLY ESSENTIAL BAPTISM FOR REGENERATION UNTO ETERNAL LIFE
If there is only one baptism for regeneration unto eternal life, (cp Eph 4:4-5 + 1:13-14),
and if Holy Spirit baptism actually identifies the believer with Christ - into His Body the Church, (cp Ro 6:3 + 1 Cor 12:13) and seals him to eternal life, (cp Eph 1:13-14),
then the baptism which regenerates and saves unto eternal life is Holy Spirit baptism and not water baptism.
Water baptism and Holy Spirit baptism cannot both save since only one is referred to as essential in Eph 4:4-5. So 'born of water' cannot refer to water baptism in any case.
5) A SYLLOGISM RULES OUT WATER BAPTISM
If we consider vv. 14-18 which stipulate only one thing a man must do to have eternal life: believe on the Son, then this rules out water baptism:
If faith alone leads to eternal life [Jn 3:14-18]
[alone = the only thing stipulated]
[eternal life = entering the eternal kingdom of God]
And if being born again leads to entering the eternal kingdom of God [Jn 3:3, 5]
Then faith alone leads to being born again!
[Thus the water in Jn 3:5 is not water baptism]
V) Jn 3:5 cont.]:
(v. 5) Jesus answered, 'I tell you the truth, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water and spirit."
"ean-me tis ........gennthe ex ..hudatos
"unless ...anyone be born out of water"
kai ...[*ex]...................................pneumatos", N_GSN
"and [*out of the realm of the] spirit" =
This refers to the whole process of God sprinkling "clean water" on Nicodemus and cleansing him of all idols and putting a new [born again] spirit in him and giving him a "heart of flesh" replacing his "heart of stone" and putting His Spirit in him and moving him to follow God's decrees. And all of this is done NOT in the physical realm but out of the realm of the spiritual:
"kai [*ex] pneumatos" = "and [out of the realm of the] spiritual"
*Notice that the Greek preposition "ex" applies to "pneumatos", N_GSN = "spirit" as well as "hudatos" = "water".
1) [Compare Jn 4:23]:
"Yet a time is coming and has now come when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit [pneumati, N_DSN, i.e., in the spiritual realm], and truth, for they are the kind of worshipers the Father seeks."
2) [Compare Mt 5:3]:
"Blessed are the poor in spirit [pneumati, N_DSN, i.e., in the spiritual realm], for theirs is the kingdom of heaven."
And to clarify this our Lord then makes this distinction between the spiritual realm of being born again and the physical realm of physical birth.
In the matter of spiritual verses physical, we have Jn 3:6 which immediately follows verse 5 and which differentiates between physical birth and spiritual birth. This corroborates Jn 3:5's 'born of water' referring figuratively to the operation of the Holy Spirit as the Agent of regeneration 'out of', i.e., in the spiritual realm.
(v. 5) Jesus answered, 'I tell you the truth, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water and spirit.
(v. 6) Flesh gives birth to flesh, but the Spirit gives birth to spirit' ".
OBSERVATIONS:
Jesus answers again that no one can enter, i.e., see, the kingdom of God unless he is 'born of water and spirit' or 'spiritual', ('pneumatos' can mean either). And He further explains this with the next verse 'Flesh gives birth to flesh but the Spirit gives birth to spirit'.
"Flesh" here cannot mean man's fleshly or sinful nature because it is contrasted as opposite to the spiritual realm. Hence "flesh" here means the physical realm as opposed to the spiritual realm.
So what does He mean?
According to v. 6, it is evidently a spiritual birth our Lord is speaking about which is brought about by God the Holy Spirit = an actual birth in the spiritual realm by the Holy Spirit - excluding anything to do with the flesh, i.e., excluding the physical realm.
Hence 'born of water' in v. 5 cannot mean physical birth or water baptism. It must be something symbolic of the spiritual world.
Let us look at the Greek text in v. 5. We have 'gennEthE ex hudatos kai pneumatos' = 'born out of water and [born out of] spirit or spiritual.
The phrase 'kai pneumatos' indicates that one is born out of 'pneumatos' = 'the spiritual', i.e., the spiritual realm by water. When we consider verse 6, 'flesh gives birth to flesh but the Spirit gives birth to spirit'; we are left with water being symbolic of God the Holy Spirit Himself as the only Agent in the spiritual realm or any realm Who can perform a spiritual rebirth.
Recall that John 1:12-13 stipulates that one who believes on His [Christ's] name is "born of God" which is also indicated in 3:3 as literally being "born from above". This operation is in the spiritual realm and not of the physical realm as stipulated. This narrows down the One Who performs regeneration to God Himself = God the Holy Spirit, (OT passages corroborate this).
A) ONE IS BORN AGAIN IN THE SPIRITUAL REALM AS OPPOSED TO THE PHYSICAL REALM
So it requires another birth, one which is out of the renewing work of the Holy Spirit and out of the realm of the spiritual, to become born again. This birth is brought about only by the Spirit, God the Holy Spirit for God is the only Agent Who can regenerate an individual in the spiritual realm or anywhere.
In Jn 3:6, Jesus reiterates His answer to Nicodemus' question of "How can a man be born when he is old." so that Nicodemus will not miss it:
"Flesh gives birth to flesh [the physical birth] but the Spirit [God the Holy Spirit] gives birth to [your dead] spirit in the spiritual realm." There are two distinct realms: One is fallen man, the flesh, and the other is of God, the Holy Spirit, in the spiritual realm. A fallen man cannot regenerate himself, (be reborn), he needs a divine operation in a spiritual realm. Only God the Holy Spirit can regenerate a dead human spirit. Man can do nothing, the words are clear. So such actions as water baptism, committing one's life to Christ, going to church regularly, etc., being in the realm of the flesh will do nothing to effect an action in the spiritual realm, i.e., to become born again with an alive spirit.
[Return
to study on Christian water baptism ]
Jesus then begins to explain more to Nicodemus:
(v. 7) "You should not be surprised at My saying, 'You must be born again.'
(v. 8) The wind blows wherever it pleases. You hear it's sound, but you cannot tell from where it comes or where it is going. So it is with everyone who is born of the Spirit."
"You should not be surprised at My saying, 'You must be born again.'" =
OBSERVATIONS:
Our Lord continues to explain to Nicodemus what it means to be 'born again' & 'born of water and spirit' in order to enter the Kingdom of God.
Jesus said "You [Nicodemus, a Pharisee and member of the Jewish Ruling Council, (v. 1)] should not be surprised at My saying, 'You must be born again.' "
Evidently, the terms 'born again' and 'born of water and spirit' to enter the Kingdom of God should have been familiar concepts to Nicodemus. Jesus made it clear in v. 7 that Nicodemus was supposed to be knowledgeable in the [OT] Scriptures. After all he was a Pharisee and a member of the Jewish Ruling Council both positions of which require an expert knowledge of the [OT] Scriptures.
Verse 8 provides further insight into what being 'born again' and 'born of water and spirit' means. It is equated with "gegennEmenos ek tou Pneumatos" = "born of the Spirit". The word "pneuma" means both wind and spirit. Its use in verse 8 indicates that the work of God the Holy Spirit is invisible and unfathomable, like the blowing of the wind. Man controls neither the wind nor the realm of the spirit, nor does man have anything to do with his being born again, nor with his maintaining or keeping his born again status which rules out water baptism or any human doing. It is virtually described as a mystery in the same way that the wind blows wherever it pleases and you cannot tell 'where it comes or where it is going.' Nevertheless the wind is a discernible earthly analogy for being born of the Spirit which Nicodemus should have grasped but did not.
As an expert of experts in Scripture, (v. 10), Nicodemus should have understood the term 'born again'. For Scripture of his time, (Old Testament), refers to this concept as we have already investigated, (cp Ez 36:24-32; 11:19; 18:31; Jer 31:31-34)
(v. 7) "You should not be surprised at My saying, 'You must be born again.'
(v. 8) The wind blows wherever it pleases. You hear it's sound, but you cannot tell from where it comes or where it is going. So it is with everyone who is born of the Spirit."
"The wind blows wherever it pleases. You hear it's sound, but you cannot tell from where it comes or where it is going." =
"wind" = "pneuma"
"Spirit" = "Pneuma(tos)"
The word "pneuma" means both wind and spirit. Its use in verse 8 indicates that the work of God the Holy Spirit is invisible and unfathomable, like the blowing of the wind. Man controls neither the wind nor the realm of the spirit, nor does man have anything to do with his being born again, nor with his maintaining or keeping his born again status.
"As you do not know the path of the wind, or how the body is formed in a mother's womb, so you cannot understand the work of God, the Maker of all things."
Once a man believes, he is saved, i.e., born again; and he is "marked in Christ with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit, Who is a deposit guaranteeing his inheritance of eternal life."
(v. 13) "And you also were included in Christ when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation. Having believed, you were marked in Him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit,
(v. 14) Who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God's possession - to the praise of His glory."
Notice that first comes believing in the gospel and then the Holy Spirit completes His work of regeneration unto salvation and a myriad of other things.
[Eph 4:30]:
"And do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, with Whom you were sealed for the day of redemption."
[At this point in the conversation one like Nicodemus might then ask the same question that Nicodemus himself asked]:
" 'How can this be?', Nicodemus asked."
OBSERVATIONS:
Evidently, Nicodemus genuinely does not understand what Jesus is saying about being born again of water and spirit in spite of our Lord's earthly analogies.
Nicodemus asks how this spiritual birth takes place. And Jesus confronts Nicodemus' lack of understanding because Nicodemus should know, being a teacher of Scripture himself]:
" 'You are Israel's teacher' said Jesus, 'and do you not understand these things?"
OBSERVATIONS:
Our Lord reminds Nicodemus that he is Israel's teacher and yet he does not understand 'these things' such as needing to be born again of water and spirit in order to see/enter the kingdom of God. This points to the subject as one which Nicodemus should understand but does not.
Nicodemus remained in ignorance because it is evident he did not believe in our Lord's Identity nor His testimony about having to be born again in order to see/enter the Kingdom of God.
Jesus answered that Nicodemus, as the master teacher of Israel ought to know about being born again. The Old Testament prophets spoke of the new birth = the New Covenant, i.e. the new beginning through the work of the Spirit, (cp Isa 32:15; Eze 36:25-27; Joel 2:28-29).
Our Lord then continues His answer to Nicodemus' question of "How can this be?":
"I tell you the truth, we speak of what we know, and we testify to what we have seen, but still you people do not accept our testimony."
OBSERVATIONS:
Notice that our Lord spoke in the plural, referring to others: the testimony of OT Prophets and of messengers of His day who borewitness to Who Jesus was and to what one must do to enter the Kingdom of God.
Jesus and others 'speak of what [they] know and... testify to what [they] have seen' relative to the matter of entering the kingdom of God. And He says, "still you people do not accept our testimony." Evidently, "You people" refers to the people of Israel of which Nicodemus is representative. The people of Israel largely did not believe in the testimony of our Lord and the prophets. They rejected Him the & teaching of what it takes to see the kingdom of God, to be born again, from heaven above.
A) [Compare Jn 1:10-11]:
(v. 10) "He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him.
(v. 11) He came to that which was His own [Israel], but His own did not receive Him."
A) LACK OF FAITH LEADS TO IGNORANCE IN SPIRITUAL MATTERS
Nicodemus and most of the nation of Israel, ("you people"), remained in ignorance because they did not believe in the testimony of our Lord or the prophets before Him.
The "we" in verse 11 above refers to our Lord and the prophets who spoke of God's Word before our Lord's incarnation).
"All the prophets testify about Him that everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins through His name."
And the greatest prophet of Old Testament times, John the Baptist, did indeed testify to what he knew and could see, the Lamb of God Who takes away the sins of the world:
"I [Jesus] tell you the truth: Among those born of women there has not risen anyone greater than John the Baptist; yet he who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he."
"The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, 'Look, the Lamb of God, Who takes away the sin if the world!' "
By not believing that what Jesus and the prophets before Him were saying was true, Nicodemus and the nation Israel could never understand truths from God's Word. Most of the nation Israel would even reject the testimony of John the Baptist of their our Lord's arrival as the Messiah/Savior of Israel fulfilling prophecy in Scripture in every detail. Nicodemus was ignorant of the realm of spiritual truths of which Jesus spoke. He represented the nation Israel's unbelief and consequent lack of knowledge. Jesus, like the prophets, spoke to the nation Israel on teachings from God's Word, but the Jews rejected His witness, His teachings and His Person as their Messiah. Our Lord goes on to explain to Nicodemus that his not understanding spiritual matters has to do with his lack of belief, as it does with everyone, (1 Cor 2:14):
"I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how, then, will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?"
OBSERVATIONS:
Jesus' testimony up to this point was related to earthly things which evidently was not believed. Now our Lord is saying, 'How then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?'
If Nicodemus did not understand as Jesus explained the concept of entering the kingdom of God using earthly analogies, such as being born again/from above and born of water as a symbol of being born of the Holy Spirit; and of the wind to picture the Holy Spirit's working in the regeneration of an individual; 'How then will [Nicodemus] believe if [Jesus] spoke of heavenly things?'
Unlike the 'many people [who] saw the miraculous signs Jesus was doing and believed in His name, (v. 2:23),' Nicodemus lacked faith in Jesus. Hence he still remained excluded from the kingdom of God in a state of willfully not understanding.
Since Nicodemus could not grasp the basic teachings of Scripture of Himself as Messiah by all the prophets, especially John the Baptist and of all the practical things that our Lord taught re: His sayings and parables, then it stands to reason that such spiritual concepts as becoming born again which Jesus presented would certainly not be understood. Nicodemus' lack of understanding and ignorance is caused by disbelief. It is a matter of faith - of belief! Without belief there is no understanding. Truths are often presented so well that they are irrefutable. Yet the condition of man is so depraved that most will not accept those truths and they actually place themselves in a state of willful misunderstanding, (cp 2 Thes 2:10-12; 2 Cor 2:14; Ro 8:7-8). Now, our Lord changes the focus to Himself and Who He is]:
"No one has ever gone up into heaven except the One Who came from heaven - the Son of Man."
OBSERVATIONS:
Our Lord then gives Nicodemus a heavenly picture with "No one has ever gone into heaven" indicating that no man, even Abraham and any of the saints of old, had ever gone into heaven.
(They remained in Paradise awaiting our Lord's sacrifice for sins at Calvary after which time He would set the captives in Paradise free and bring them into heaven.)
There is one exception:
"The Son of Man, the One Who came from heaven." Just as all Jesus' previous responses have been relevant to Nicodemus' statement/question "We know you are a Teacher Who has come from God"; so this point has to do with Who He is. Jesus is referring to Himself as the 'Son of Man, the One Who came from heaven', indicating that He is more than an average Man; for no man "has ever gone into heaven, except the Son of Man Himself, the One Who came from heaven." The Son of Man is God and Man come down from heaven to save people from their sins and to reign forever.
A) [Compare Jn 1:48-51]:
(v. 48) "How do you know me?" Nathanael asked. Jesus answered, "I saw you while you were still under the fig tree before Philip called you.
[Notice that Jesus is portrayed here as demonstrating the capacity of godly omniscience]
(v. 49) Then Nathanael declared, "Rabbi, you are the Son of God; you are the King of Israel.
[Our Lord is named by Nathaniel as the Son of God implying diety and as the King of Israel]
(v. 50) Jesus said, "You believe because I told you I saw you under the fig tree. You shall see greater things than that."
(v. 51) He then added, "I tell you the truth, you shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending on the Son of Man [referring to Himself."
Our Lord portrays Himself as the Son of Man Who has authority over the angels in heaven, implying diety.
1) GOD'S JUSTICE MUST BE SATISFIED BEFORE HE CAN PERMIT SINFUL MAN TO BE WITH HIM IN HEAVEN
(v. 24) "[all] being justified as a gift by His [God’s] grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus;
(v. 25) Whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins [of believers of OT times] previously committed;
(v. 26) for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus."
"God presented Him [Jesus Christ] as a sacrifice of atonement' =
God the Father presented, i.e., put forward before the eyes of men, His Son in an act of sacrifice which was done to satisfy God for the sins of the whole world.
"and He Himself [Jesus Christ] is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world."
"propitiation" = "hilasmos" = satisfaction, satisfactory payment for.
a) [Ro 3:24-26 NAS cont.]:
(v. 24) "[all] being justified as a gift by His [God’s] grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus;
(v. 25) Whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins [of believers of OT times] previously committed;
(v. 26) for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus."
"forbearance" = "anoche" =
[Vine's Expository Dictionary]:
"a holding back...denotes forbearance, a delay of punishment.... His forbearance is the ground not of His forgiveness, but of His pretermission [suspension of the punishment] of sins, His withholding punishment. It is connected with the passing over of sins in times past.....It is connected with the passing over of sins in times past, previous to the atoning work of Christ, [Cp Heb 9:9-15]."
Those in Old Testament times who trusted alone in God's future provision of salvation through a coming GodMan Messiah had judgment of their sin postponed even after they died. As a matter of fact, O.T. saints went to Paradise in Hades when they died, awaiting transfer to heaven, (Lk 16:19-31).
Once Christ died on the cross, the sins of the whole world being completely paid for, (1 Jn 2:2), having already received as a result of a moment of faith in a coming Messiah through the seed of Abraham, the gift of God's Perfect Righteousness, (Gen 15:6; Ro 4:3),
the Old Testament period believers were immediately brought out of Paradise in Hades into heaven to be with God for the rest of eternity.
"For the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, that He might be just" =
In the past there was some question as to whether God was a perfectly just and righteous God. Men like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, David were justified - accounted righteous - by their faith in God's future plan of salvation and they were received into the Paradise compartment of Hades when they died, (Lk 16:19-31). These men were sinners with their sins not having been paid for as indicated in Scripture:
This passage indicates that men were accusing God of overlooking the sins of men which God forgave on credit in the past:
(Ps 50:21) "These things [sins] you [evil men] have done and I [God] kept silent; you thought I was altogether like you. But I will rebuke you and accuse you to your face."
"you thought I was altogether like you" =
God says to evil men 'You thought I was evil like you because men saw that I forgave some men for trusting in Me but without punishment for those sins which those men were known to have committed. Evil men thought that God was 'winking' at sins and would not really hold men accountable for any wrong doing.
So God's foremost purpose in the atonement of the Lord Jesus Christ was to demonstrate to the universe that His justice is satisfied by the atonement with respect to the sins of the past which were forgiven on credit. His holiness - His perfect righteousness - is not impugned for covering the sins of believers in the past until the atonement was completed by Jesus Christ on the cross. God's justice is upheld by His fulfillment to Abraham, (Gen 12:1-3; 15:1-6) - and the world - of a plan of salvation through Abraham's seed, God's Son, the Lord Jesus Christ, (Gal 3:16).
a) HADES: A SCRIPTURAL VIEWPOINT
A key term in the biblical understanding of death and the afterlife is the Greek word Hades. This word forms a linguistic bridge which takes us from the Old Testament view of death, often expressed with the word Sheol to the New Testament Hades. The importance of a proper interpretation of this word cannot be overstressed.
In the Septuagint, Hades is found 71 times. It is the Greek equivalent for Sheol 64 times. The other seven times it is found in the Septuagint, it is the translation of other Hebrew words, some of which shed significant light on what Hades meant to the translators of the Septuagint.
In Job 33:22, Hades is the translation of the Hebrew word memeteim, or 'destroying angels [KJV] ... the angels who are commissioned by God to slay the man.' In this sense it refers to disincarnate spirit creatures.
It is also used in Job 38:17 as the translation of the Hebrew, 'the realm of ghosts or shades' (KJV).
It is used for 'the shades of the underworld' in Prov 2:18. This refers to the spirits of the departed in Sheol who are viewed as 'the dwellers in the Kingdom of the dead as in Homer and Virgil and like the Latin word Inferi, it stands for the realm of disembodied souls.'
Not once is Hades the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew word for grave (kever). Not once does it mean nonexistence or unconsciousness. The times it is used for words other than Sheol, it clearly means the world of spirits. There is, therefore, no way to escape the conclusion that the translators of the Septuagint clearly understood that Hades referred to the realm of disembodied souls or spirits; and, we must also emphasize, that the translators of the Septuagint did not obtain this concept from Platonic Greek thought but from the Hebrew concept of Sheol itself.
THE LEXICOGRAPHICAL EVIDENCE
When we turn to the lexicographical material, we find that the authors of the Septuagint were correct in their usage of Hades as the Greek equivalent for the Hebrew Sheol.
Arndt and Gingrich... A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament... define Hades as 'the underworld ... the place of the dead' (p. 16). Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon (p. 11) states that Hades comes from two words which joined together [which] mean 'invisible,' or 'unseen.' Thus it refers to 'the common receptacle of disembodied spirits.'
The KJV mistranslated the word Hades in every occurrence just as it did with the word Sheol. It is found ten times in the Greek New Testament. The Greek text underlying the KJV [the Textus Receptus] has it an eleventh time in 1 Cor 15:55, but this is a corrupt reading.
Perhaps the best way to clarify what the New Testament teaches about Hades is to first of all state what Hades does not mean. Once we have cleared away any misconceptions of this word, then we can present its meaning in the New Testament.
First, Hades does not mean death, because the Greek word thanatos is the word for death in the New Testament. Also, Hades and death appear together in such passages as Rev 1:18 where they cannot be viewed as synonyms...
"I am the Loving One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades."
Second, Hades is not the grave, because the Greek word mneema is the word for grave in the New Testament. Also, all the arguments which demonstrated that Sheol cannot mean the grave apply equally to Hades seeing that Hades is the equivalent for the Hebrew word Sheol. The New Testament's dependence upon the Septuagint demonstrates this point.
Third, Hades is not 'hell,' i.e., the place of final punishment for the wicked, because the Greek word Gehenna is the word for 'hell' in the New Testament.
Fourth, Hades is not 'heaven,' i.e., the place where the soul of the righteous goes at death to await the coming resurrection, because the Greek word ouranos is the word for heaven in the New Testament.
Fifth, Hades is not the place of eternal bliss for the righteous after the resurrection, because the new heavens and the new earth or the everlasting kingdom refer to this place (Matt 24:34; Rev 21:1).
Having clarified what Hades does not mean, we can now state the New Testament meaning of this crucial word.
First, we must once again emphasize the importance of the principle of progressive revelation....
...The New Testament picks up where the Old Testament left off by progressively developing the concept of what happens to the soul of man after death.
The rich man was directly said to be 'in Hades' (v. 23), the phrase 'Abraham's bosom' to which the angels carried Lazarus (vv. 22,23) must be interpreted as the section of Hades reserved for the righteous.....
During the intertestamental period, the Jewish concept of Sheol had progressed to the stage where it was believed that Sheol had two distinct compartments, or sections. One section was a place of torment to which the wicked went while the other was a place of conscious bliss, often called 'Abraham's bosom' or 'paradise,' to which the righteous were carried by angels...."
Compare our Lord's account of Lazarus and the rich man in Hades which testifies to the accuracy of the rabbinic understanding of Sheol:
[Lk 16:19-31]:
(v. 19) "[Jesus said, (v. 15)] Now there was a certain rich man, and he habitually dressed in purple and fine linen, gaily living in splendor every day.
(v. 20) And a certain poor man named Lazarus was laid at his gate, covered with sores,
(v. 21) and longing to be fed with the crumbs which were falling from the rich man's table; besides, even the dogs were coming and licking his sores.
(v. 22) Now it came about that the poor man died and he was carried away by the angels to Abraham's bosom
[Abraham's bosom was an expression which referred to the paradise compartment in Hades, the place where those who had hte faith of Abraham dwelled until they were to occupy the kingdom of heaven]
and the rich man also died and was buried.
(v. 23) And in Hades he lifted up his eyes,
[Notice that our Lord is indicating here in this account that there is a fully functioning consciousness after death, a bliss for those who are declared righteous and torment for those who are not. And the rest of the passages confirms this]:
being in torment, and saw Abraham far away, and Lazarus in his bosom.
(v. 24) And he cried out and said, 'Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water and cool off my tongue; for I am in agony in this flame.'
(v. 25) But Abraham said, 'Child, remember that during your life you received your good things, and likewise Lazarus bad things; but now he is being comforted here, and you are in agony.
(v. 26) And besides all this, between us and you there is a great chasm fixed, in order that those who wish to come over from here to you may not be able, and that none may cross over from there to us.' "
Although Old Testament saints did not have as much information about the afterlife as the New Testament revelation provided later on, it does not follow that the word Sheol, the Hebrew O.T. word for the place one resides in the afterlife, referred to something different or less than what the word Hades referred to in the N.T., any more than it does when one refers to one's car at one time as a sedan and a '99 Ford Taurus at another. They both refer to the same thing, one reference being more specific than the other.
Although this passage in Luke shows a characteristic of an O.T. historical account, for the beggar's name was specifically given as a proper name - not a symbollic one: "a certain poor man named Lazarus". And since, the passage refers to yet another O. T. historical individual: "Father Abraham". And since all attempts to treat this as a completely symbollic parable that teaches anything but death or the afterlife end up in farfetched interpretations that violate clear doctrinal passages on these subjects; consider another option which best fits the rest of Scripture and has precedent in the rabbinical literary form of Jesus' day:
[Morey op. cit., pp. 85-87]:
"The rabbinic literature before, during, and after the time of Christ is filled with parables which built imaginative stories around real historical characters. There are multiple examples in the Talmud and Midrash of parables in which Abraham had dialogues with people such as Nimrod, with whom he could never have spoken literally. Everyone understood that these parables and dialogues did not literally take place.
[Yet what was being taught by the fictitious account was indeed literal]
It was understood that the rabbis used imaginative stories and dialogues as a teaching method. It was understood by all that these dialogues never took place...
...Christ used a rabbinic story and dialogue in Luke 16:19-31 which was not 'true' or 'real' in the sense of being literal [in a historical sense, but literal indeed in what it is teaching]. It is obvious that Lazarus did not literally sit in Abraham's literal bosom. The rich man did not have literal lips which literal water could quench.
What is important for us to grasp is that Christ used the mental images conjured up by this rabbinic parable to teach that, in the hereafter, the wicked experience torment and the righteous bliss. This is clear from the rabbinic sources from which he drew this parable.
Since the dialogue between the rich man and Abraham was a teaching tool used by the rabbis before Christ, it is obvious that Christ was not trying to teach that we will talk with the wicked in the hereafter. He was merely using the dialogue method to get across the concept that there is no escape from torment, no second chance, and we must believe the Scriptures in this life unto salvation."
[Morey, cont.]:
"Before
Christ's ascension, believers as well as unbelievers were said to enter
Sheol or Hades. After Christ's ascension, the New Testament pictures
believers after death as entering heaven to be with Christ...(Phil 1:23),
which is far better than Hades.
iii) [Compare Jn 3:13]:
"No one has ever gone into heaven except the One Who came from
heaven - the Son of Man."
Notice that "No
one has ever gone into heaven"= No Old Testament saint had as yet
occupied heaven after they died, yet there is evidence in Scripture that
O.T. saints did occupy some place after they did die. After the cross,
Scripture indicates that believers occupied heaven:
(v. 23) "I [Paul] am torn between the two: [duty on earth or going to be with the Lord in heaven, (vv. 21-22)]: I desire to depart and be with Christ [Who is at this moment in heaven], which is better by far;
(v. 24) but it
is more necessary for you that I remain in the body."
[Morey, cont.]:
"[So believers] are present with the Lord (2 Cor 5:6-8),
worshipping with the angelic hosts of heaven (Heb 12:22, 23) at the altar
of God (Rev 6:9-11). Thus believers do not now enter Hades but ascend
immediately to the throne of God....
[
on the believer's immediate destiny in heaven when he dies]
...That Christ went to Hades, i.e., the world beyond death, is clear from Acts 2:31."
"He
[David, (v. 29) looked ahead and spoke of the resurrection of the Christ,
that He was neither abandoned to Hades ["hadou" = Hades], nor
did His flesh see decay.
[Notice that this indicates that our Lord did go to Hades]
To Jews at that time it was on the 4th day that corruption set in thus revealing most unequivocally that our Savior’s human soul was in Hades while His body lay in the sepulcher, He ascending out of Hades to receive His body instead of descending down from heaven. Ephesians 4:8-10 vividly describes the descension of our Lord "into the lower parts of the earth," which never could mean the sepulcher or grave in which He was deposited. It is not in the lower parts of the earth, but on the surface, excavated out of a great rock in the mountain side, and entered horizontally. No grave is in the "lower parts of the earth," much less our Savior’s sepulcher.
Furthermore, Paradise was not in heaven before the cross, for Jesus testified to the women on the morning He was resurrected that He had not yet gone up to His Father, (Jn 20:15-18), whereas He had met the thief in Paradise on the preceding Wednesday."
vi)
[Compare Jn 20:15-18]:
(v. 15) ''' "[Jesus said] 'Woman,' He said, 'why are you
crying? Who is it you are looking for?' Thinking He was the gardener, she
[Mary Magdalene] said, 'Sir, if you have carried Him away, tell me where
you have put Him, and I will get Him.'
(v. 16) Jesus said to her, 'Mary.' She turned toward Him and cried
out in Aramaic, 'Rabboni!' (which means Teacher).
(v. 17) Jesus said, 'Do not hold on to Me, for I have not yet
returned to the Father [in heaven]. Go instead to My brothers and tell
them, 'I am returning to My Father and your Father, to My God and your
God.' " '''
(Note: our Lord was
crucified on the Passover Sabbath Wednesday:..
on the crucifixion/resurrection chronology)"
"Jesus answered him [the thief on the cross, (v. 40)], 'I tell you the truth, today [Wednesday the Passover Sabbath] you will be with Me in paradise.' "
[Morey, cont.]:
)
"While 'paradise' in the gospel account (Luke 23:43) referred
to the section of Hades reserved for the righteous [before the cross], by
the time Paul wrote 2 Cor 12:2-4 paradise had been taken out of Hades and
was now placed in the third heaven.
viii)
[Compare 2 Cor 12:2-4]:
(v. 2) "I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was
caught up to the third heaven. Whether it was in the body or out of the
body I do not know that this man - whether in the body or apart from the
body I do not know, but God knows -
(v. 4) was caught up to paradise. He heard inexpressible things,
things that man is not permitted to tell.
[Morey, cont.]:
"According to the post-resurrection teaching in the New
Testament, the believer now goes to heaven at death to await the coming
resurrection and the eternal state. But, what of the wicked? The wicked at
death descend into Hades which is a place of temporary torment while they
await the coming resurrection and their eternal punishment.
First, it is clear that the souls of the wicked are in torment during the intermediate state in Hades. The Apostle Peter stated this in language which could not be clearer:
"Then the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from temptation, and to keep the unrighteous under punishment for the day of judgment."
First, Peter says that the wicked are 'kept' unto the day of judgment. This word ['kept'] is in the present, active, infinitive form, which means that the wicked are being held captive continuously. If the wicked merely pass into nonexistence at death, there would be nothing left to be 'kept' unto the day of judgment. Obviously, Peter is grammatically picturing the wicked as being guarded like prisoners in a jail until the day of final judgment.
Second, Peter says that the wicked are 'being tormented.' This word is in the present, passive, participle form and means that the wicked are continuously being tormented as an on-going activity.
If Peter wanted to teach that the wicked receive their full punishment at death by passing into nonexistence, then he would have used the aorist tense. Instead, he uses those Greek tenses which were the only ones available to him in the Greek language to express conscious, continuous torment. The grammar of the text irrefutably establishes that the wicked are in torment while they await their final day of judgment.
When the day of judgment arrives, Hades will be emptied of its inhabitants, and the wicked will stand before God for their final sentence....
(v. 13) "The sea gave up the dead that were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead that were in them, and each person was judged according to what he had done.
(v. 14) Then death and Hades were thrown into the Lake of Fire. The Lake of Fire is the second death.
(v. 15) If anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the Lake of Fire."
Thus, we conclude that Hades is the temporary intermediate state between death and the resurrection where the wicked are in conscious torment. Hades without Paradise, i.e., without the O.T. saints will thus be emptied into the Lake of Fire at the resurrection of all unbelievers, and then the wicked will be cast into 'hell' (Gehenna).
i)
PARADISE IN HADES
i_a)
[Lk 16:19-31]:
(v. 19) "[Jesus said, (v. 15)] Now there was a certain rich man, and he habitually dressed in purple and fine linen, gaily living in splendor every day.
(v. 20) And a certain poor man named Lazarus was laid at his gate, covered with sores,
(v. 21) and longing to be fed with the crumbs which were falling from the rich man's table; besides, even the dogs were coming and licking his sores. <