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JOHN CHAPTER ONE
CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
[OBSERVATIONS FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]:
A) "IN THE BEGINNING" REFERS TO THE BEGINNING OFALL TIME AND ALL CREATION
"In [the] beginning" =
"en .........archE"
Notice that there is no definite article for the Word "beginning". This points in an emphatic way to a specific beginning.
Since these are the very first words in the gospel of John pointing to a beginning of beginnings,
and since original creation of time and matter comes immediately into view as the substance of this beginning in verses 2 & 3,
and since the creation of the Word cannot be in view since the Word is stipulated as "was";
then "In [the] beginning" refers to the beginning of all time and creation of all things.
1) [Compare the next two verses: Jn 1:2-3]:
(v. 2) "He was with God in the beginning.
(v. 3) Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made."
Verses 2 & 3 nail down the beginning to be that beginning when "all things were made... that has been made." - a momentous beginning at which time the Word already "was with God"
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]:
"In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth."
Notice that author John is paralleling Genesis 1:1 as it portrays the beginning of all time and creation. The LXX, Genesis 1:1, (septuagint) has the identical phrase for in the beginning in Jn 1:1, "En arche". Hence Genesis 1:1 is a declarative statement about the absolute beginning of all time-space-matter, i.e. of the universe. This is not a recreation because the Hebrew verb "bara" = rendered in English "created", signifying created out of nothing, does not support that, nor does the context of the rest of Genesis chapter one.
Furthermore the
conjunction "and" connecting the verses in Genesis chapter 1
indicates uninterrupted sequential action over a period of 6 twenty-four
hour days. So the phrase "In the beginning" in Genesis 1:1
points to the beginning of a series of original creative acts out of
nothing over a 6 x 24 hour period, not a description of a recreation of
something that evolved over millions of years. This is corroborated by
Genesis 2:1 which is a declarative statement indicating that from verse
1:1 to 2:1 there were 6 literal 24 hour days which transpired in God's
creative work whereupon in Genesis 2:1 the work is finished. 
"Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of His hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in His cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is His name, and the name of His Son? Tell me if you know!"
In the Hebrew the word "Who" in this passage is literally translated, "Who are the Holy Ones Who"= plural. So God the Father and God the Son have gone up to heaven and come down, gathered up the wind, wrapped up the waters and established, (i.e. created), the ends of the earth. Here is a clear statement that the Son of God, later in the text of John chapter 1 to be established as the Word, to be there at the creation of the world, even a Co-Creator, even two Personalities of the Godhead.
1) [Compare 1 Jn 1:1-2; 2:13a]:
(v. 1) "That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched--this we proclaim concerning the Word of life.
(v. 2) The life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us.
(v. 3) We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And our fellowship is with the Father and with His Son, Jesus Christ.
(v. 2:13a) "I write to you, fathers, because you have known Him who is from the beginning."
Notice that the Word of life, identified by John as 'Jesus Christ', the 'Son' of God, 'eternal life', is stipulated as being 'with the Father', 'from the beginning', having 'appeared' to humanity to be seen, looked at and touched, i.e., in human form. It is especially clear that the phrase "from the beginning" refers to the beginning of all time and creation.
I cont.) [Jn 1:1 cont.]:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]
"In the beginning was the Word" =
The word "logos" in Greek, commonly refers to speaking, a message or words. It appears here with the definite article, "the Word" = "ho Logos". Repeated personal references are made to the Word in this passage as if "ho Logos", the Word were a Person. John 1:1a refers to an eternal Person already present at the beginning of all time and creation.
[Kenneth Wuest, Golden Nuggets from the Greek New Testament, 1940, Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Co. 1940]:
'''There are three words in the Greek language for "word," one referring to the mere articulate sound of the voice, another speaking of that sound as the manifestation of a mental state, and still another, the one used by John, and whose meaning will be discussed.
The word is Logos. It comes from the verb which means literally "to pick out or select," thus "to pick words in order to express one's thoughts," thus "to speak." It speaks of a word uttered by the human voice which embodies a conception or idea. It refers not merely to a part of speech but to a concept or idea... The definite article appears before "Word". He is not merely a concept ... He is THE concept.'''
"In the beginning was the Word" =
The phrase "In the beginning" cannot refer to the time of the Word being created because "the Word" in that phrase is stipulated that it already "was" in the beginning which establishes itself as uncreated and eternal. Time did not exist, no created thing existed and the Word was - uncreated & eternal!
Notice that the verb "was" = Greek, "en" in this context indicates a continual existence in the past. An eternal existence of "the Word" is in view since "the Word" was already ongoing "in the beginning" before all time and all creation.
(v. 2) "He was with God in the beginning.
(v. 3) Through Him all things were made; without Him nothing was made that has been made."
Notice that the Word is declared once more as being with God "in the beginning" and is then referred to in verse 3 as "Him" through Whom "all things were made," without Whom "nothing was made that has been made." It is emphatically declared here that all that was created was created through the Word following the declaration of the Word being with God "in the beginning". This narrows down the beginning to the beginning of all time and creation when all things that were created were created. This rules out the Word being created, because He is Creator of all things. The Word, therefore must be one Who is uncreated, i.e., eternal, God.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
(v. 16) "For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.
(v. 17) He is before all things, and in him all things hold together."
Notice that the Son, Jesus Christ, the Word is before all things, i.e., uncreated = eternal God
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]:
3) JESUS CHRIST WAS PRESENT WITH THE FATHER BEFORE THE WORLD BEGAN
"And now, Father, glorify Me [Jesus Christ, the Son of the Father, vv. 1-2)] in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world began."
[Notice that Jesus Christ is the Son of God the Father and was in His presence with the glory of God before the world began]
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]
4) SINCE THE WORD IS ETERNAL, THE WORD IS GOD
Since the Word "was" at the beginning of all time and all creation, then the Word was already and has always been, i.e., He is eternal as only God is eternal. Hence the Word is God.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
"Before the mountains were born or You brought forth the earth and the world, from everlasting to everlasting You are God."
Notice that He Who was before creation, and He Who was before the earth and the world, which includes the Word, (Jn 1:1), is everlasting God. This corroborates the eternality and hence the Diety of the Word who was before creation and verses stipulates that He is Creator, (v. 3).
I cont.) [Jn 1:1 cont.]:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
"In the beginning was the Word" =
E cont.) "THE WORD" REFERS TO AN ETERNAL PERSON ALREADY PRESENT AT THE BEGINNING OF ALL TIME AND CREATION, cont.
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]
Logos" in greek, commonly refers to speaking, or a message, or words. In the context of Jn 1:1-2 "Logos" appears with a definite article and is personified to mean an eternal person equal to God and already present at the beginning of all time and creation.
To understand the term "Word" ("logos") which John used as a name we need to determine the meaning this term "logos" had for those to whom the Gospel of John was first written nearly 2000 years ago to a Jewish audience.
To the Jew living 2000 years ago in Jerusalem, a word was something concrete, something much closer to what we today would call an event or a deed. A word spoken to the Jew was a deed done! Thus the Jew would be prepared for the thought that the Word the "Logos" - of God could be seen and touched as well as heard, and that the "Logos" would find expression as a Person.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
7) JOHN'S FIRST EPISTLE PERSONIFIES THE WORD AS HAVING APPEARED IN HIS HUMANITY
(v. 1) "That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched--this we proclaim concerning the Word of life.
(v. 2) The life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us.
(v. 3) We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son, Jesus Christ."
Notice that the Word of life Who was from the beginning, appeared, as life, i.e., a human being and was heard, seen, looked at, and touched. Hence the Word here in First John is the same as 'The Word' in John chapter one which is indeed personified and human.
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]
"In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God" =
"With", (Greek, "pros", accusative case), with the stationary verb "to be", (Greek, "eimi"), means "close to", "facing", "in front of", "in the presence of"
"God" = "Theon", accusative case.
If "pros" were in the dative case, it would mean something like the Word was "with God" or even "at God's place" in the sense of the French 'chez moi', for that is the typical usage. But John's use of "pros" here is unique. It is not in the dative case but in the accusative case, hence it portrays a face to face with God as directed/oriented towards God on an equal level, separate and in its own right. So, in the beginning, the Word was enjoying reciprocity with God.
So the Word was already there "in the beginning" of all time and all creation and at that beginning the Word was with - literally, face to face on an equal level with God indicating an eternal being equal to God - not simply words from God which would not have such a status. The Word therefore is God, a second expression/personality of God.
The Greek word which is rendered "with" in both verses ("pros") means an intimate communion on an equal level with God.
[Dr Leon Morris states, ('The Gospel According to John, Wiliam B. Eerdmans Publishing Co., Grand Rapids, Mi, 1971, p. 75-76)]:
''' "The Word was with God" is probably as good a translation as we can manage for a difficult Greek expression.....
...The preposition ["pros" = "with"] "implies not merely existence alongside of but personal intercourse. It means more than' meta' = 'with' or 'para' = 'with', 'by', 'near', 'among', and is regularly employed in expressing the presence of one person with another"....According to A. T. Robertson, "the literal idea comes out well, 'face to face with God...[it]...expresses nearness combined with the sense of movement towards God, and so indicates an active relationship." [with a sense of intimacy]
So "pros" is used to establish the idea of communion on an equal level with God.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
G) JESUS CHRIST LATER TESTIFIES TO HIS PRESENCE WITH THE FATHER BEFORE THE WORLD BEGAN
"And now, Father, glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world began."
Notice that Jesus Christ declares that He had the glory of God while in the presence of God before the world began.
I cont.) [Jn 1:1 cont.]:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]
H) GOD THE FATHER IS IN VIEW IN THE PHRASE "AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD"
(v. 1:1b) "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God"............................ (v. 14) "The Word became flesh and made His dwelling among us. We have seen His glory, as of the One and only Who came from the Father, full of grace and truth."
Notice that in verse 1 the Word was with God and in verse 14 the Word became flesh and came from the Father. Hence "God" in 1:1b is God the Father.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
1) [Compare 1 Jn 1:1-2; 2:13a]:
(v. 1) "That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched--this we proclaim concerning the Word of life.
(v. 2) The life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us.
(v. 3) We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And our fellowship is with the Father and with His Son, Jesus Christ.
(v. 2:13a) "I write to you, fathers, because you have known him who is from the beginning."
Notice that the Word of life is stipulated as being 'with the Father', 'from the beginning'. It is especially clear that the phrase "from the beginning" refers to the beginning of all time and creation.
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]
J) AND GOD - THE NATURE, ALL THE QUALITIES AND ESSENCE OF GOD WAS THE WORD IN THE BEGINNING OF ALL TIME AND CREATION
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" =
"Kai Theos en ...o ...Logos"
"And God ..was the Word"
Notice the position of "Theos" = "God" at the beginning of the phrase - an emphatic one without the definite article which serves by this position and without the article to describe the Word as having the essence of God.
Since there is no article in front of "Theos" = "God", the noun is said to be anarthrous, i.e., without an article. The verb "was" = "en", (to be), is copulative and intransitive verb, i.e., it joins two subjects together in meaning as the context permits and takes no object, respectively . Said in another way, there can be no direct object following "was" because intransitive copulative verbs take no objects but take instead predicate nominatives which refer back in meaning to the subject of the clause. Hence, Jn 1:1c joins the two subjects = "Theos" and = "Logos" in meaning where the former being without an article and in view of the previous phrases describes the quality of the latter. Hence "Logos", the Word is described by everything that "Theos", God is.
Mark it down that in every instance where we need to construe one nominative as the predicate nominative, the predicate nominative is anarthrous. Accordingly, if one nominative is articular and the other is anarthrous, the anarthrous nominative is in the predicate, and the articular nominative is the subject.
On the other hand, if both of the nouns in a predicate nominative construction have the article, or if both lack the article, the two nouns become interchangeable. If there had been an article in front of "Theos", then John would have been telling us that "God was the Word" as well as "the Word was God." But there is no article in front of "Theos" so author John is not teaching that Jesus Christ and God [the Father] were both the same person. Hence we avoid the heresy of modalism and a contradiction since the Word cannot be with God if both are one and the same.
Therefore, in view of the emphatic position of "Theos" (God) at the beginning of Jn 1:1c and the lack of a definite article in Jn 1:1c pointing to it as the predicate nominative which describes the subject,"ho Logos", (the Word); we conclude that the qualities of God, i.e., His divine essence which only God can possess, are indicated as qualities which are inherent in "Logos" = "the Word". So "Theos" in this phrase means that the Word has the nature, qualities and essences of the One and only God, i.e., God is the Word.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
K) SCRIPTURE SPECIFICALLY STIPULATES THAT JESUS CHRIST IS GOD
"[We pray this] so that the name of our Lord Jesus may be glorified in you, and you in him, according to the grace of our God and the Lord Jesus Christ."
......................"HopOs endoxasthE .........to ..onoma tou kuriou ..hEmOn iEsou en humin
[We pray this] so that may be glorified ..the name .........of Lord our .......Jesus .in .you
.
kai humeis en autO kata ..............tEn.charin tou theou .....hEmOn kai .kuriou iEsou
and you .....in Him ..according to the .grace ........of God ...our ........and Lord ..Jesus
christou."
Christ."
God "theos" here
is articular, and Christ "christou" is anarthrous. Both nouns
are in the same case, and therefore should read "the grace of Jesus
Christ, our God and Lord". (Granville Sharp rule #1
)
"While we wait for the blessed hope--the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,"
"Prosdechomenoi tEn makarian elpida kai ..epiphaneian tEs .....doxEs
"Expecting............the .blessed .....hope ..and .appearing ....of the glory
tou megalou theou kai .sOtEros hEmOn iEsou christou
.......of great .God ..and Savior ...our ....Jesus Christ
God "theos" here is articular, and Christ "christou" is anarthrous. Both nouns are in the same case, and therefore should read "our great God and Savior Jesus Christ". (Granville Sharp rule #1)
"But to the Son he says, 'Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom.' "
"pros de ..ton huion ..........ho thronos sou ..ho .theos .eis ton aiOna tou aiOnos
"to ....But the Son .He says ....throne Your Oh God is to the age .....of the age....
......................................................................................................(forever and ever)
........rhabdos euthutEtos ............he .rhabdos tEs ....basileias sou"
...the scepter .of righteousness is the scepter .of the kingdom Your"
Notice that the Son is addressed as God in this quotation from Ps 45:6-7, hence we have a testimony of God the Son in the Old and New Testaments.
"Keep watch over yourselves and all the flock of which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers. Be shepherds of the church of God, which He bought with His own blood."
Notice that "Theos" = "God" purchased the church "with his own blood", pointing to Jesus Christ.
"For to us a child is born,
to us a son is given,
and the government will be on His shoulders.
And He will be called
Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."
I cont.) [Jn 1:1 cont.]:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
[OBSERVATION OF THE TEXT AT HAND]
L) THE 'WORD' CANNOT BE A GOD IT MUST REFER TO THE GOD
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God"(cont.) =
"Theos" is a predicate nominative of "was" in the emphatic position at the beginning of the third clause without the definite article. The absence of the definite article, however, does not demand that "Theos" be interpreted "a god" with the indefinite article as some suggest.
First of all, New Testament Greek does not possess an indefinite article ('a/an'), but it does have an indefinite pronoun ('a certain one', Greek 'tis') the very word that a Greek reader would expect here if the point was that Christ was somehow a god, but not really 'God.'
Secondly, the verb "was" = "en", (to be), is copulative and intransitive, i.e., it joins two subjects together in meaning as the context permits and takes no object, respectively. Said in another way, there can be no direct object following "was" because intransitive copulative verbs take no objects but take instead predicate nominatives which refer back in meaning to the subject of the clause. Hence, Jn 1:1c joins the two subjects = "Theos" and = "Logos" in meaning where the former being without an article and in view of the previous phrases describes the quality of the latter. Hence "Logos", the Word is described by everything that "Theos", God is.
Mark it down that in every instance where we need to construe one nominative as the predicate nominative, the predicate nominative is anarthrous. Accordingly, if one nominative is articular and the other is anarthrous, the anarthrous nominative is in the predicate, and the articular nominative is the subject.
On the other hand, if both of the nouns in a predicate nominative construction have the article, or if both lack the article, the two nouns become interchangeable. If there had been an article in front of "Theos", then John would have been telling us that "God was the Word" as well as "the Word was God." But there is no article in front of "Theos" so author John is not teaching that Jesus Christ and God [the Father] were both the same person. Hence we avoid the heresy of modalism and a contradiction since the Word cannot be with God if both are one and the same.
Therefore, in view of the emphatic position of "Theos" (God) at the beginning of Jn 1:1c and the lack of a definite article in Jn 1:1c pointing to it as the predicate nominative which describes the subject,"ho Logos", (the Word); we conclude that the qualities of God, i.e., His divine essence which only God can possess, are indicated as qualities which are inherent in "Logos" = "the Word". So "Theos" in this phrase means that the Word has the nature, qualities and essences of the One and only God, i.e., God is the Word.
So to translate it 'a god' as some individuals do is both incorrect grammar, poor Greek and totally out of context. The Word, then, can be no one else except God.
Thirdly, earlier in the verse, the apostle John used the definite article with the Greek word Theos to refer to God [the Father] according to customary usage, and so to use the identical combination again to refer to the Word would be potentially confusing, making it seem as if 'the Word' was really identical to God the Father', one of the very points that John is disproving here.
So John only had three ways to write this:
1) the Word as 'the God' (but this would mean that there was no real distinction between the Father and the Word)
2) the Word was 'a certain god' (but this would mean that the Word was a lesser sort of divinity, not God on the level of the Father
3) 'God' was the Word - what John actually did write, thus fully and unambiguously attributing the essence of God to the Word as distinct from the Father.
"God" in the 2nd clause is in the accusative case with the definite article and is thus spelled "Theon". It refers to the One and only Almighty God. "God" in the 3rd clause is in the predicate nominative case without an article and is thus spelled "Theos". Its position at the beginning of the clause refers to the qualities of the One and only Almighty God. The spelling differences are due to the grammatical rules of the koine Greek language, and not to a difference in meaning. That is how this biblical language works!
I cont.) [Jn 1:1 cont.]:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
L cont.) THE 'WORD' CANNOT BE A GOD IT MUST REFER TO THE GOD
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." (cont.) =
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
It can be easily demonstrated that the anarthrous theos is quite in fact qualitive, not indefinite. If the anarthrous theos is to be taken as indefinite, and hence translated into English with an indefinite article ("a god"), then we must do the same to the other 282 times that theos appears without the article. In fact, there are four more instances in chapter 1 of John alone where theos appears anarthrously, and yet the Jehovah's Witnesses inconsistently translate only verse 1 as indefinite, while in the remaining four instances in the first chapter where theos appears anarthrously they don't translate them as "a god."
It is interesting to note that for centuries Jn 1:1c has been translated as "The Word was God" until the New World Translation came along. Are we to conclude that centuries of humanity have gone by deceived?
In 2 Corinthians 5:19 the word theos appears anarthrously, but the Jehovah's Witnesses' New World Translation (NWT) does not translate it as "For a god was in Christ..." Nor do they translate John 1:6 as indefinite either ("There was a man sent from a god, whose name was John"). John 1:12 would not mean the same if they translated it as indefinite ("...to them gave he power to become the sons of a god..."). Same with verse 13 ("Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of a god") and verse 18 ("No man hath seen a god at any time...").
Since God is truly the only God - i.e., there is no other God or god, then Jesus Christ could not be a god other than Jehovah God Himself or He is no God or god at all. Scripture testifies that there is no God or god other than Almighty God Himself, hence Jn 1:1c could not be interpreted as "And the Word was a god" and be consistent with the rest of the bible:
1) [Isa 45:5a]:
"I am the Lord, and there is no other;
Besides Me there is no God."
(v. 10) "'You are My witnesses,' declares the Lord,
'And My servant [Israel] whom I have chosen,
In order that you may know and believe Me,
And understand that I am He.
Before Me there was no God formed,
And there will be none after Me.
[So no God or god was or will be created. Jesus Christ cannot therefore be a created God]
(v. 11) I, even I, am the Lord;
And there is no Savior besides Me.' "
"I [God] am the first and I am the last;
apart from Me there is no god."
apart from Me there is no god."
(v. 1) "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
(v. 2) He was with God in the beginning."
[OBSERVATION OF THE TEXT AT HAND]
"He was with God in the beginning" =
Verse two reiterates the message of verse one for emphasis and leaves no doubt that the Word is a Person Who was at the beginning of all time and creation Who is uncreated, eternal, God.
The phrase 'He was with God in the beginning' eliminates the possibility that the Word is simply a communication from God. No communication from God would be described as 'He was with God in the beginning!' The phrase 'in the beginning' points all the more to the beginning of all time and creation at which beginning 'He', the Word already was with = face to face on an equal basis with God.
(v. 1) "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
(v. 2) He was with God in the beginning.
(v. 3) Through Him all things were made; without Him nothing was made that has been made."
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]:
A) THE WORD IS PERSONIFIED BY THE PRONOUN, 'HIM', - THE AGENT OF ALL CREATION, UNCREATED, WHO IS GOD
"Through Him all things were made; without Him nothing was made that has been made" =
"The phrases "through Him" and "without Him" mark "Him", the Word, as the Agent of creation. In this verse the context of the term "Word" is as the Agent of creation, a Person, and not just a commanding word from God to create. So through the Word, a Person, all things were created. He Himself was not created because the verse stipulates so: "without Him nothing was made that has been made." He could not create Himself, He is the Creator Who by virtue of this is the uncreated, eternal God.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
(v. 15) "He [the Son of God, (v. 13-14)] is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
(v. 16) For by Him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by Him and for Him.
(v. 17) He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together."
Notice that the Son of God Who is the Word of life, (1 Jn 1:1-3), i.e., Who is the Word, (Jn 1:1), is before all things and Creator of all things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible; hence His must be uncreated, God.
[OBSERVATION OF THE TEXT AT HAND]
C) THE BEGINNING OF ALL TIME & CREATION IS IN VIEW, NOT SOME OTHER BEGINNING
"Through Him all things were made; without Him nothing was made that has been made" =
Verse 3 has the time when all things were made in view, reinforcing that the "beginning" of verses 1 & 2 is the beginning of all time and creation when all things were made and not some other beginning as some have suggested.
(v. 1) "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
(v. 2) He was with God in the beginning.
(v. 3) Through Him all things were made; without Him nothing was made that has been made.
(v. 4) In Him was life, and that life was the Light of men."
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]
A) IN HIM, THE WORD, WAS ALL LIFE AND ETERNAL LIFE. HE IS ETERNAL
"In Him was life" =
"was life" is in the durative past tense = in Him always was life, with a view of the Word's eternal essence which is singular to God.
The word "life" in the phrase "In Him was life" points to more than just aliveness - more than being the source of all physical life. Notice that the phrase in v. 3, "Through Him all things were made; without Him nothing was made that has been made." immediately precedes "In Him was life" in v. 4. This points emphatically to the Word being Creator of all life and all things. Hence, the phrase "In Him was life" includes every sense and source of life from creating all things from the beginning of all time and creation to sustaining the life of all things to being the source of eternal life in which anything that was created exists in Him and is sustained by Him. The Word is the Creator, Eternal God.
[John Morris states in his commentary, (NIV Commentary: Gospel of John, p.82)]:
The term [Life] must be taken in its broadest sense. It is only because there is life in the Logos [Greek for "Word"] that there is life in anything on earth at all. Life does not exist in its own right. It is not even spoken of [in this particular verse] as made 'by' or 'through' the Word, but as existing 'in Him.' "
"In Him was life and that life was the Light of men" =
The phrase "and that life was the Light of men" points to the Word in Whom all life eternally was from the beginning of all time and creation, (vv. 1-3). He was the Light, (v. 4), i.e., the enlightenment - the revelation to all men of the Word = the Life = the Creator of all things = God.
By the title "the Light of men" the Word is revealed as the One Who knows God the Father and Who makes Him known - if we may jump ahead to verse 18, (Amplified Version):
"No man has ever seen God at any time; the only unique Son, the only unique God, Who is in the bosom [the intimate presence] of the Father, He [the Son] has declared Him [the Father] - He has revealed Him, brought Him out where He can be seen; He (Jesus) has interpreted Him (God) and He has made Him known."
God Almighty is not completely knowable because He is infinite, yet He is knowable in a finite sense to man - through the Word Who is the Light of men.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
"In Him was life and that life was the Light of men" (cont.) =
(v. 19) "This is the verdict: Light has come into the world, but men loved darkness instead of light because their deeds were evil.
(v. 20) Everyone who does evil hates the light, and will not come into the light for fear that his deeds will be exposed.
(v. 21) But whoever lives by the truth comes into the light, so that it may be seen plainly that what he has done has been done through God."
Notice that God's Son is depicted as Light Who has come into the world. The Person of Christ and the light that He emanates via His actions of His humanity is portrayed as the opposite of darkness and evil. It is portrayed as that which exposes evil. Hence we may conclude that the Light of the Person of Christ and what He represents is righteousness and holiness, the antithesis of darkness and evil.
"When Jesus spoke again to the people, he said, "I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life."
Jesus Himself declares here that He is the light of the world, i.e, the righteousness of God to the world. Furthermore, He declares that whoever follows Him will never walk in darkness, i.e., evil but have the light of life, i.e., the righteousness of God.
(v. 5) '''And now the LORD says -- He Who formed Me in the womb to be His servant to bring Jacob back to Him and gather Israel to Himself, for I am honored in the eyes of the LORD and My God has been My strength--
(v. 6) He says: "It is too small a thing for you to be my servant to restore the tribes of Jacob and bring back those of Israel I have kept. I will also make you a light for the Gentiles, that you may bring My salvation to the ends of the earth." '''
We corroborate and add further commentary to Jn 1:3 that Jesus Christ is the light of the world relative to the availability through Him of the salvation of all men, Jew and Gentile 'to the ends of the earth.'
(v. 4) "In Him was life, and that life was the Light of men.
(v. 5) The Light shines in the darkness, but the darkness has not [overpowered] it."
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]:
A) THE WORD, A PERSON WAS IN PAST TIMES FROM THE BEGINNING THE LIGHT OF MEN. HE IS THE REVELATION OF WHO GOD IS TO MANKIND FROM ADAM AND EVE THROUGHOUT THE AGES. THE WORLD WHICH IS DARKNESS IS OPPOSED TO THIS LIGHT OF MEN AND SEEKS TO OVERPOWER HIM
"In Him was life, and that life was the Light of men. The Light shines in the darkness, but the darkness has not comprehended [overpowered] it." =
Notice that author John used "was the Light of men" and not "is the Light of men" to describe the Word in Whom was life. He also used the past tense "comprehended [overpowered]" and not the present tense "comprehends [overpowers]"
Although it is true that the Word is Life and Light today and forever because He is the eternal Creator God, (vv. 1-4); the fact that the verbs are in the past tense makes it likely that author John is speaking of Old Testament times - from the beginning with Adam and Eve ongoing throughout the ages wherein the Light of the Word, the truth about God through the Word Who is life Who is the Light of men has always been available for men to see, receive and believe in unto eternal life.
In light of the phrase "but the darkness [of the world] has not comprehended [overpowered] it" we can determined that the world is generally at odds with God. Furthermore, the all mankind is portrayed as in "darkness", i.e., opposed to the Light Who is life Who reveals Who God is and that He provides life to the world, their existence and eternal life - all life.
V cont.) [Jn 1:4-5 cont.]:
(v. 4) "In Him was life, and that life was the Light of men.
(v. 5) The Light shines in the darkness, but the darkness [overpowered] it not.
(v. 5 Amplified) And the Light shines on in the darkness, for the darkness has never overpowered it - put it out, or has never absorbed it, has not appropriated it, and is unreceptive to it."
(v. 5) "And the Light shines on in the darkness, for the darkness has never overpowered it - put it out, or has never absorbed it, has not appropriated it, and is unreceptive to it." =
The amplified translation incorporates the most applicable meaning of the Greek phrase "ou katelaben" = to not apprehend or not appropriate or not overcome. Hence this verse reflects the fact that the nature of light is to shine and dispel darkness - and not be overcome by it. Darkness here implies not knowing God, disbelief in and hostility to Him, being separated from Him temporally and eternally. This is evidently the condition of the world. Light will invade the dominion of darkness. But the Word will be victorious in spite of that opposition.
(v. 2) "He [the Word] was with God in the beginning. (v. 3) Through Him all things were made; without Him nothing was made that has been made. (v. 4) In Him was life, and that life was the Light of men. (v. 5) And the Light shines on in the darkness, for the darkness has never overpowered it - put it out, or has never absorbed it, has not appropriated it, and is unreceptive to it.", (cont.) =
The inference can be made that the Word, the Light of all mankind from the beginning (v. 2) has been shining in the darkness of a world which does not know God, nor the eternal life of God and is even hostile to Him. The verse stipulates that the Light will never be overpowered by the darkness of the world which presumes by implication that the world is dark and hostile to the Light of Who God is and His eternal life.
(v. 6) "There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John."
[OBSERVATION OF THE TEXT AT HAND]
"There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John." =
The author John the Apostle writes about another John [John the Baptist - to be corroborated later]. In verse 6 the author uses the verb "egeneto" which means "came" or "came into being". This is the same word used in verse 3: "All things "egeneto"= came into existence - through Him [the Word]" So unlike the Word Who "en" = "continually was", (v. 1) = Who is eternal, John [the Baptist] 'egeneto' = "came into being". He was created by the Word Himself, who created all things, (v. 3). Recall that the author John uses the word "en " = "was" in verses 1 & 2 to describe the Word as having a continuous existence in the past, an eternal existence Who created all things.
(v. 6) "There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John.
(v. 7) He came as a witness to testify concerning that Light, so that through Him all men might believe."
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]:
"There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John. He came as a witness to testify concerning that Light" =
John was created by and sent from God as a witness at a particular time in history to testify to mankind concerning Who the Word is, i.e., that He is the personified Light, the revelation, the illumination of Who God is to mankind - that in Him is all life and eternal life with Him.
"There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John. He came as a witness to testify concerning that Light, so that through Him all men might believe." =
The man named John who came into existence, created by God at a particular time in accordance with God's sovereignty was sent from God as a witness to testify to man concerning the Word Who is the personified Light to men concerning Who God is so that through the Word, the Light, all men might believe and have eternal life. Note that by the pronoun 'Him' the Word is confirmed as an individual Person.
So John is a man created and sent by God to testify about (to publicly proclaim) the Light in such a way that all who hear might have the opportunity to trust, i.e. believe to an end which is not specifically stipulated here.
On the other hand, there is implied in the context of this passage that the result of a moment of believing in the Person of the Word comes the reception of eternal life considering the fact that it has already been stipulated that the Word is eternal, (v. 1); God, (v. 1); Creator, (v. 3); and Life, (v. 4). Without Him, one would surely die apart from Him. Hence believing in Him is to live with Him forever.
[Leon Morris states, (The Gospel According to John, NIV Commentary, p.90-91)]:
"The emphasis on testimony should not be overlooked. There is a legal air about it. Testimony is a serious matter and it is required to substantiate the truth of a matter. It is clear that our author wants us to take what he writes as reliable. He is insistent that there is good evidence for the things he sets down. Witness establishes the truth."
Notice that the verb 'believe' is "pisteuousin", a dative, plural, masculine participle, lit., 'to those that are the believing ones' [in His name]. The action of this participle form portrays a moment, not a continuous action, of believing to become the believing one resulting in immediate and permanent possession of eternal life.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
John the Baptist was declared in Scripture as one who would call to Israel to "prepare the way for the Lord, make straight paths for Him", (Mt 3:3; Isa 40:3) by declaring "the Kingdom of God is near", (Mt 3:2), i.e., that the Messiah is coming now to bring His Kingdom into the world when all of Israel believes in Him. John further declared Who Jesus is:"Behold the Lamb of God Who takes away the sins of the world", (Jn 1:29), i.e., as testified to in Old Testament Scripture, (Isa 53:4-5); declaring "one must believe in Jesus", (Acts 19:4), being that Lamb of God Who takes away the sins of the world, i.e., "Repent [= believe in Christ as Messiah].. for the forgiveness of sins", (Acts 19:4; Mk 1:4) to gain entrance into this eternal Kingdom. Then John commanded those who believed in Jesus to demonstrate this change to faith in Him by a "baptism of repentance [/belief in Jesus] for the forgiveness of sins", (Acts 19:4; Mk 1:4).
(v. 1) "See, I will send My messenger, who will prepare the way before me. Then suddenly the Lord you are seeking will come to his temple; the messenger of the covenant, whom you desire, will come," says the LORD Almighty.
(v. 2) But who can endure the day of his coming? Who can stand when he appears? For he will be like a refiner's fire or a launderer's soap.
(v. 3) He will sit as a refiner and purifier of silver; he will purify the Levites and refine them like gold and silver. Then the LORD will have men who will bring offerings in righteousness,
(v. 4) and the offerings of Judah and Jerusalem will be acceptable to the LORD, as in days gone by, as in former years."
(v. 7) "As John's disciples were leaving, Jesus began to speak to the crowd about John: "What did you go out into the desert to see? A reed swayed by the wind?
(v. 8) If not, what did you go out to see? A man dressed in fine clothes? No, those who wear fine clothes are in kings' palaces.
(v. 9) Then what did you go out to see? A prophet? Yes, I tell you, and more than a prophet.
(v. 10) This is the one about whom it is written: " 'I will send my messenger ahead of you, who will prepare your way before you.'
(v. 11) I tell you the truth: Among those born of women there has not risen anyone greater than John the Baptist; yet he who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he.
(v. 12) From the days of John the Baptist until now, the kingdom of heaven has been forcefully advancing, and forceful men lay hold of it.
(v. 13) For all the Prophets and the Law prophesied until John.
(v. 14) And if you are willing to accept it, he is the Elijah who was to come.
(v. 15) He who has ears, let him hear."
"A voice of one calling: "In the desert prepare the way for the LORD; make straight in the wilderness a highway for our God."
(v. 19) Now this was John's testimony when the Jews of Jerusalem sent priests and Levites to ask him who he was.
(v. 20) He did not fail to confess, but confessed freely, "I am not the Christ. "
(v. 21) They asked him, "Then who are you? Are you Elijah?" He said, "I am not." "Are you the Prophet?" He answered, "No."
(v. 22) Finally they said, "Who are you? Give us an answer to take back to those who sent us. What do you say about yourself?"
(v. 23) John replied in the words of Isaiah the prophet, "I am the voice of one calling in the desert, 'Make straight the way for the Lord.' "
[So when an Israelite underwent John's or Jesus' baptism of repentance/belief in Jesus, what was in view was immersion into water as a symbol of ones actual identification with Israel's Messiah and His eternal kingdom when he believed in Jesus]
(v. 29) '''The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, "Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!
(v. 30) This is the one I meant when I said, 'A Man Who comes after me has surpassed me because He was before me.' "
(v. 31) I myself did not know him, but the reason I came baptizing with water
[=a baptism of repentance meaning to believe in Christ as Messiah for the forgiveness of sins, (Mk 1:4; Acts 19:4)]
was that He might be revealed to Israel" '''
[=so that all Israelites might believe in Him unto the kingdom of heaven; and when all Israel believes, the One John announced would "be revealed to Israel" as Messiah and His Kingdom would then be at hand, i.e., ushered in, (Mt 1:4; Zech 12:1-13:4)].
"And so John came, baptizing in the desert region and preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins."
[Notice that John's baptism was a baptism that represented having been forgiven of one's sins. Acts 10:43 indicates that forgiveness of sins comes by faith alone, hence the repentance here in Mk 1:4 is the same as saying repent from not believing to believing in Christ unto forgiveness of sins]
(v. 12) "When Jesus heard that John had been put in prison, he returned to Galilee."
(v. 17) "From that time on Jesus began to preach, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is near."
[Notice that our Lord continued John's message of repent/believing in the One coming after him, that is Jesus for His Kingdom is near = at hand ready to begin]
(v. 23) "[Peter said] 'From this man's [David's, (v. 22)] descendants God has brought to Israel the Savior Jesus, as He promised.
(v. 24) Before the coming of Jesus, John preached repentance and baptism to all the people of Israel."
[Notice that John's preaching was directed to Israel - a preaching of corporate repentance of national Israel and individual water baptism. John the Baptist preached this as did our Lord Who continued this after John's death]
(v. 1) '''In those days John the Baptist came, preaching in the Desert of Judea
(v. 2) and saying, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is near."
["near" = "eggiken gar " = lit., 'has drawn near'
" eggiken" = to cause to approach, to be near, to be at hand
"gar" = a causal particle 'for' which introduces a reason, (which is that the Kingdom of God is potentially at hand), for the thing previously said, (which is that Israel must therefore repent in order to bring it in) = 'Israel repent, i.e., trust in the coming Messiah and all that the Scriptures relate about Him, for then the Kingdom of God will be caused to approach and enter into history, (i.e., a corporate trusting in Him by national Israel will result in eternal life in the Kingdom and that Kingdom will then commence on earth when the entire Israel nation accepts Jesus Christ as Messiah and Savior).'. However the Jews did not receive Him at the time, (Jn 1:11) - so the Kingdom did not commence]
(v. 3) This is he [John] who was spoken of through the prophet Isaiah: "A voice of one calling in the desert, 'Prepare the way for the Lord, make straight paths for him.' ", (Ref., Isa 40:3)
(v. 4) John's clothes were made of camel's hair, and he had a leather belt around his waist. His food was locusts and wild honey.
(v. 5) People [from Israel, (Jn 1:31)] went out to him from Jerusalem and all Judea and the whole region of the Jordan.
(v. 6) Confessing their sins, they were baptized by him in the Jordan River.
[Once an Israelite trusted in Christ as Messiah/Savior unto the kingdom of heaven which was declared as near in conjunction with the Messiah's arrival as the Lamb of God Who takes away the sins of the world, (Jn 1:29), that Israelite believer thereupon confessed his sins, (Pr 28:13; 1 Jn 1:9), and was water baptized by John in the Jordan River. This water baptism was declared as a baptism of repentance, symbolic of changing one’s mind from not believing to faith alone in Christ alone as Messiah/Savior, (Acts 19:4). This baptism was symbolic of the Israelite believer's identification of national Israel with our Lord and His Kingdom which was to be ushered in had all Israel accepted Him as Messiah, the Lamb of God Who takes away the sins of the world, hence John's statement, 'The Kingdom of God is near']
(v. 7) But when he [John] saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees coming to where he was baptizing, he said to them: "You brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee from the coming wrath?
(v. 8) Produce fruit in keeping with repentance."
Notice that producing fruit and repentance are two different things. One repents, i.e., believes in the Messiah Jesus Christ for forgiveness of sins so as to gain entrance into the kingdom of heaven and after that one is to produce fruit, i.e., godly behavior.
So the command is to produce fruit, i.e., change the behavior in keeping with the change of mind = repentance from unbelief to belief. If repentance were the same as producing fruit then this verse would make no sense: "produce fruit in keeping with producing fruit???
So John's message (and our Lord's message at first) of repentance was limited to the people of Israel and it was related to the coming of their Messiah Jesus Christ in Whom John exhorted Israel to repent/believe Him as "The Lamb of God Who takes away the sins of the world" unto the forgiveness of sins. Upon the nation Israel accepting her Messiah/Savior, the Kingdom would commence on earth. But Israel inevitably rejected and crucified Him:
(v. 10) "He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him.
(v. 11) He came to that which was His own [Israel], but his own did not receive Him."
(v. 6) "There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John.
(v. 7) He came as a witness to testify concerning that Light, so that through Him all men might believe.
(v. 8) He himself was not the Light; he came only as a witness to the Light."
[OBSERVATION OF THE TEXT AT HAND]:
A) JOHN HIMSELF WAS NOT THE LIGHT - HE CAME ONLY AS A WITNESS TO THE LIGHT
"He himself was not the Light; he came only as a witness to the Light" =
The author emphasizes in verse 8 that John is not the Light but a messenger of the Light. Evidently this has in view the possibility that some may consider John as the Light instead of only as a witness to the Light.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]:
"He himself was not the Light; he came only as a witness to the Light" =
(v. 19) Now this was John's testimony when the Jews of Jerusalem sent priests and Levites to ask him who he was.
(v. 20) He did not fail to confess, but confessed freely, "I am not the Christ. "
(v. 21) They asked him, "Then who are you? Are you Elijah?" He said, "I am not." "Are you the Prophet?" He answered, "No."
(v. 22) Finally they said, "Who are you? Give us an answer to take back to those who sent us. What do you say about yourself?"
(v. 23) John replied in the words of Isaiah the prophet, "I am the voice of one calling in the desert, 'Make straight the way for the Lord.' "
[Notice that John has to make it clear that he is not the Prophet, i.e., the One Who is to come, the Messiah but John has to make it clear that he is the "one calling in the desert, 'Make straight the way for the Lord', i.e., the Prophet/Messiah to come]
(v. 6) "There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John.
(v. 7) He came as a witness to testify concerning that Light, so that through Him all men might believe.
(v. 8) He himself was not the Light; he came only as a witness to the Light.
(v. 9) That was the True Light which gives light to every man was coming into the world."
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]:
"That was the True Light which gives light to every man" =
"Ouk En ekeinos ...to ..phOs all ................hina ....marturEsE .......peri ...tou phOtos"
"Not was that man the Light but was sent so that he might testify about the .Light"
It is further emphasized that the Word is the true Light Who gives light to every man, i.e., revelation/enlightenment of Who God is, that the Word is life, He created all things, (v. 3), and thus He is eternal life and makes it available to all men. Evidently all anyone has to do is believe in Him for it.
Notice that the true Light "gives light" in the sense of shining the light of truth about God upon mankind to reveal Himself to man as the Word in Whom is eternal life to be received simply when one believes that fact.
This not to say that man receives some inner light or enlightment within himself; for it is John's testimony about the Light, the Word, Who has come into the world as a personal revelation to mankind as an individual human being for man to perceive and believe in Him.
Several verses later it becomes evident that man's inner condition in general has an incapacity to receive the Light. The phrase 'true Light' implies that there are false 'lights' that lead to untruths which pervade man's thinking especially relative to God and life and eternal life.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]
(v. 18) "Whoever believes in Him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God's one and only Son.
(v. 19) This is the verdict: Light has come into the world, but men loved darkness instead of light because their deeds were evil."
(v. 20) Everyone who does evil hates the light, and will not come into the light for fear that his deeds will be exposed.
(v. 21) But whoever lives by the truth comes into the light, so that it may be seen plainly that what he has done has been done through God."
[Light is portrayed as God's One and only Son, (v. 18) Who has come into the world and whose light, i.e., what He reveals by His thoughts, words and deeds is righteousness and truth. Light exposes and is the antithesis of the deeds of men which are inevitably evil. On the other hand, when men live by the truth, i.e., the Light, i.e., God's righteousness, this is done exclusively through God.
Those who do evil - the implication here is all men, love darkness, i.e., evil because their deeds are always evil. Everyone who does evil, i.e., all mankind hates the light and will not come into the light. They will not accept God's One and only Son, Who is the light of truth and God's righteousness because He exposes their evil deeds]
(v. 6) "There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John.
(v. 7) He came as a witness to testify concerning that Light, so that through Him all men might believe.
(v. 8) He himself was not the Light; he came only as a witness to the Light.
(v. 9) That was the True Light which gives light to every man was coming into the world."
[OBSERVATION FROM THE TEXT AT HAND]:
"He himself [John] was not the Light; he came only as a witness to the Light. That was the True Light which gives light to every man was coming into the world." =
The true Light, the Word, entered the world in past history, (hence the phrase "was coming into the world), in a unique way at the time when John was created by and sent from God to announce this entry. The kind of entry implied is one in which mankind can use its senses to perceive Who the Word is and believe in Him unto eternal life.
(v. 7) He came as a witness to testify concerning that Light, so that through Him all men might believe.
(v. 8) He himself was not the Light; he came only as a witness to the Light.
(v. 9) That was the True Light which gives light to every man was coming into the world.
(v. 10) He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him."
[OBSERVATION OF THE TEXT AT HAND]:
"The True Light that gives light to every man was coming into the world. He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him." =
In view is a presence of the Word which came into the world in past history at the time of John such that He was recognizable by men. Notice that verses 4-8 stipulate that the Word is the true Light, the revelation of God and eternal life to men Who "was coming into the world" as announced by John that men might believe in Him, (v. 7), which necessitates being able to be recognized.
This implies that the Word entered the world in a form at John's time in history such that mankind had the capacity to recognize Him, pointing to a human form, a GodMan, Who demonstrated His capacity as Man and Creator God in order to be recognized and believe in Him unto eternal life.
Notice that this could not be the omnipresence of God, because that presence in the world has always been from the beginning. The presence in view here has a beginnning at the time of John's creation and presence in the world.
B) EVEN THOUGH THE WORLD WAS MADE THROUGH THE WORD, THE WORLD DID NOT RECOGNIZE HIM
"The True Light that gives light to every man was coming into the world. He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him." =
It is made clear here that even though the Word is Creator and appeared in history in His creation, yet the world did not recognize Him. This further implies that the Word did appear in the world in a recognizable form and should have been recognized but mankind's capacity to recognize Him was hindered for some unspecified reason(s) which will be corroborated later.
(v. 9) "The True Light that gives light to every man was coming into the world.
(v. 10) He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him.
(v. 11) He came to that which was His own, [and] His own did not receive Him.
[OBSERVATION OF THE TEXT AT HAND]:
(v. 10) "He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him. (v. 11) He came to that which was His own" =
"eis ta .idia ...............elthen"
"To his own [things] He came"
The word "idia" is a plural adjective, in the neuter gender. It cannot refer solely to His own people which would have to be masculine, singular; nor to His own world, which is singular. Hence the true Light came into the world, (v. 10), to His own [plural], which were His own, the things of His world which were made through Him, His rulership, His kingdom, all peoples not just a particular people.
"He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him. He came to [those things, plural] which were His own and His own [people, singular] did not receive Him." =
"eis ta ...idia .elthen .....kai oi ....idioi auton ou .parelabon"
"To His own .He came and His . own .Him ..not received" =
The Word came to His own, [neuter, plural] in personal self-disclosure to His world - His kingdom, His peoples;
and His own ["oi idios" = masculine, singular] did not receive, i.e., recognize and believe in Him to become children of God, (v. 13).
Notice the conjunction "and" which joins the two phrases of verse 11, rather than "but" as some translations have rendered"kai". The conjunction "but" would signify that "His own" [neuter, plural] is the same as "His own" [masculine,singular]. But this is not the case. The conjunction "and", on the other hand, permits the distinction already afforded by the difference between the two "His own"'s
The second "His own" points to a single entity of His own which has the capacity to receive the Word or not, i.e., a group of people especially identified as His own which group did not receive Him which would have resulted in them becoming children of God, (v. 13).
Note that the Greek word for "people" = "laon" is masculine, singular. Later on in the corroboration stage, other passages will be reviewed which indicate that the particular group defined as "His own" people which did not receive Him was Israel.
3) 'HIS OWN' [PEOPLE] IMPLIES THAT HE, THE WORD, WAS IN HUMAN FORM IN ORDER TO BE ONE OF A PEOPLE
(v. 10) "He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him. (v. 11) He came to that [= those things] which were His own, [and] His own [people] did not receive Him." =
'His own' [people] implies that He, the Word, was in human form in order to be one of a people - to be corroborated later as an Israelite.
[CORROBORATION AND FURTHER COMMENTARY]:
4) ISAIAH PREDICTED ISRAEL'S REJECTION OF OUR LORD
(v. 1) "Who has believed our message and to whom has the arm of the LORD been revealed?
(v. 2) He grew up before him like a tender shoot, and like a root out of dry ground. He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him, nothing in his appearance that we should desire him.
(v. 3) He was despised and rejected by men, a man of sorrows, and familiar with suffering. Like one from whom men hide their faces he was despised, and we esteemed him not."
Notice that the question "Who has believed our message and to whom has the arm of the LORD been revealed?" is as indicated in verse 3 which follows: "He was despised and rejected by men" Evidently men did not believe the message - even His own people.
(v. 9) "The True Light that gives light to every man was coming into the world.
(v. 10) He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him.
(v. 11) He came to that which was His own, and His own did not receive Him.
(v. 12) Yet to all who received Him, to those who believe on His name, He gave the right to become children of God -"
[OBSERVATION OF THE TEXT AT HAND]:
A) TO RECEIVE HIM (THE WORD) IS TO BELIEVE IN HIS NAME
"He came to [those things which were] His own, and His own [people] did not receive Him. Yet to all who received Him, to those who believe in His name" =
The Greek text of verse 12 literally reads:
"hosoi de ............elabon ..auton edOken .autois ...exousian tekna ......theou
"But as many as received Him ...He gave to them authority children of God
genesthai tois ...............pisteuousin eis to onoma autou"
to be ........to those that believe ........on .....name ..His"
Notice that to receive Him - the 'Word', (v. 1); 'Who was God in the beginning', (v. 1); 'through Him all things were made', (v. 3); 'in Him was life', (v. 4); the 'True Light', (v. 9); is stipulated here: to believe on His name which implies a reception of eternal life.
"He came to [those things which were] His own, and His own [people] did not receive Him. Yet to all who received Him, to those who believe in His name" =
It is implied here that every single